Certification

Twitter Mobile App Campaigns Certification Exam Answers

Question 1: Which of the following is a potential way to improve the efficiency of your app install campaign?

• Target the same or similar audiences across campaigns to maximize exposure.
• Aim for multiple campaigns per device (iOS or Android) per country across Twitter and TAP.
• Exclude Custom Audiences of existing app users.
• Broaden your target audience to include new demographics

Question 2: What is the technical term for “an allowable period between the moment someone viewed or clicked on your ad and the moment they took action, in which an advertiser believes there was a causal relationship”?

• Campaign parameters
• Attribution window
• Attribution timeline
• Conversion journey

Question 3: Which ad format allows you to use multiple images or videos to show off different aspects of your app or tell a story?

• Narrative ad
• Collage ad
• Carousel ad
• Image ad

Question 4: How many swipable images or videos can you include in a Carousel Ad?

• Up to 6
• Always 3, no more or less
• Unlimited up to maximum 1GB
• Up to 3

Question 5: Which metrics section enables you to add Tweet ID and Tweet media type as custom columns for easy filtering and sorting?

• Activity history
• Breakdown by placement
• Breakdown by creative
• Breakdown by device

Question 6: Why is it normally good practice to add ALT text to images?

• To include necessary details, like disclaimers, without distracting from the message.
• It allows you to include more copy by extending your character limit.
• You can use this space to credit authors and artists without compromising your creatives.
• Users who are blind, have low vision, or other conditions, may use screen readers to understand visual content.

Question 7: Which placement option can extend your reach by placing your ad in other apps used by your audience?

• Partner apps via TAP
• Home timeline
• Relevant search pages
• Profile pages

Question 8: Your ad campaign is promoting a game app. What would be the most suitable call to action for your ad app button?

• Play
• Go to app store
• Buy now
• Learn more

Question 9: How do you choose the app you want to promote in your campaign?

• Target mobile operating systems in the ‘targeting features’ section.
• Type the app name into the ‘campaign name’ field.
• Add the app name as a keyword in the ‘targeting features’ section.
• Use the drop-down selection tool in the ‘ad group details’ tab.

Question 10: What is the “Learning Period”?

• The first few days of a campaign, when data is analyzed to find the best users for your ads.
• Analysis activities that take place during the remaining campaign window after initial reporting is finalized.
• The period of time between campaigns, where lessons learned are fed forward.
• The end of a campaign when all data is collated and analyzed to evaluate campaign success.

Question 11: Which of the following data would you be able to explore via Audience Details?

• Language and locations
• Devices used
• Changes made to ad group
• Breakdown between Twitter and TAP delivery

Question 12: Which placement option enables you to place an ad directly into a conversation thread?

• Tweet replies
• Partner apps via TAP
• Profile pages
• Home timeline

Question 13: Which of the following is used to collect, organise, and standardise app data to assess campaign performance metrics?

• Mobile measurement provider (MMP)
• Personal Information Management System (PIMS)
• Marketing mix modelling (MMM)
• Privacy-enhancing technologies (PETs)

Question 14: Which of the following bidding types would you choose to quickly get your app re-engagement campaign live and serving impressions?

• All options are equally suited to this aim.
• Target bid
• Maximum bid
• Automatic bid

Question 15: How is an ad’s quality score determined?

• It is based on previous campaign data, to estimate potential success.
• Tweets that have been running for longer are considered higher quality.
• Market data is used to measure interest and demand associated with your product or service.
• By taking factors like resonance, relevance, and recency into account.

Question 16: Which metrics section displays changes made to your campaign or ad group, and which optimizations were made and by whom?

• Activity history
• Breakdown by device
• Audience details
• Breakdown by creative

Question 17: What is a common benefit of campaigns that convey a sense of urgency, such as seasonal or one-time promotions?

• Lower cost per action (CPA)
• Lower cost per click (CPC)
• Lower cost per install (CPI)
• Lower cost per mille (CPM)

Question 18: During the mobile measurement process, which of the following happens last?

• The data is displayed for you or sent via callback.
• The install is attributed to the ad source when there is a match to the original click.
• The MMP server registers the app open and looks for a match based on the last click registered.
• The app is opened, triggering the MMP SDK.

Question 19: What is the aim of an app re-engagement ad campaign?

• Reaching existing users to help drive loyalty and engagement.
• Reaching new mobile audiences.
• Engaging with existing users to analyze user behaviors.
• Encouraging app installs beyond the initial launch campaign.

Question 20: What is Marketing Mix Modelling (MMM)?

• A means to calculate the impact of marketing activities on business outcomes using statistics and other influences.
• A campaign strategy that combines different marketing models.
• A mixed-method, qualitative evaluation of campaign performance.
• A comparison of data generated from by different marketing models for the same campaign.

Question 21: What do you have to do before the SDK in your app will send conversion events to your Twitter Ads account?

• Contact a specialist in the Twitter Ads Help Center for personalized support.
• Contact a specialist in the Twitter Ads Help Center for personalized support.
• Choose a MACT partner and set up your app to track installs and events according to their support documentation.
• Be running at least 20 ad groups at a time.

Question 22: What should appear on ad app buttons?

• Appropriate symbol or icon
• “Tap” or “click” instruction
• Call to action verbs
• the app names

Question 23: What feature can you use to help you discover and reach audiences on Twitter that are most likely to install?

• Twitter amplify
• Polls
• Automated targeting
• Product drops

Question 24: Which of the following is recommended when using video content in performance ad campaigns?

• Ensure the video is at least 30 seconds long.
• Provide detailed copy to accompany the video.
• Focus on the music and dialog, rather than visuals.
• Display your product and logo within the first few seconds.

Question 25: Where do you need to go to create an App Re-engagement campaign?

• Creator studio
• Account settings
• Business insights dashboard
• Twitter Ads Manager

Question 26: What does the ABC of best practices describe?

• Text formatting standards
• The stages of the Learning Period
• Audience, Bids and Budgets, Creative
• Attraction, Buy-in, Confidence

Question 27: On which page are you able to customise your Twitter Audience Platform (TAP) settings?

• Campaign details
• Creatives
• Placements
• Ad Group details

Question 28: You spend $50 on 10,000 impressions. What is the Cost per mille (CPM)?

• $10 CPM
• $5 CPM
• $8 CPM
• $4 CPM

Question 29: Under which attribution model would all associated advertising partners be credited equally?

• Multi-touch
• First touch
• Last touch
• Position-based

Question 30: What is the conversion rate (CVR) for 10 conversions and 500 clicks?

• 2%
• 1%
• 5%
• 10%

Question 31: Why is conversion data less reliable in the first 24-48 hours of when impressions are served?

• Initial real-time feedback is based on estimations and may fluctuate until reporting is finalized.
• No data is gathered in the first 24 hours of a campaign.
• Some features of the Twitter conversion reporting UI are not active during the first 48 hours of any campaign.
• User behaviours are less predictable at the start of a campaign.

Question 32: A Lifetime Value (LTV) formula is based on which two factors?

• User spend rate and campaign duration
• The total number of new users gained during the campaign and average user spend rate
• User spend rate and the average lifetime duration of users with the company.
• The conversion rate (CVR) and the average lifetime duration of users with the company.

Question 33: What does MACT stand for?

• Mobile App Conversion Tracking
• Mobile App Click Tracker
• Measurement And Calculation Tool
• Mean Advertising Cost Total

Question 34: Which of the following will enable you to manage conversions to track and send you events and attribution data?

• Media studio
• Twitter pixel helper
• Mobile measurement partner
• Quick promote

Question 35: How do you calculate Click-Through Rate (CTR)?

• Clicks / impressions x 100
• Cost per Purchase – Total spend/total purchases
• Conversions / Clicks x 100
• Spend / (impressions/1000)

Question 36: Which of the following is a distinct benefit of using a target bid approach?

• It allows greater control over how much you pay per billable action.
• There are more options for campaign setup and optimisation.
• You can auto-optimize to get the best results at the lowest price within your budget.
• It is typically the most cost-effective option.

Question 37: You spend $1500 per new user on day 1 of your campaign. You have a goal of hitting 10% ROAS by day 5. How much do you need to generate from each user by the end of day 5 to achieve your ROAS goal?

• $100
• $150
• $15
• $10

Question 38: How can you define and reach the target audience for your app installs campaign?

• Select all filters to narrow the field to as small an audience as possible.
• Maximize your use of demographic targeting.
• Only filter by the keywords used in your campaign.
• Apply selected filters that progressively narrow the field and then overlay data.

Question 39: When would click-through attribution credit be given?

• When a user sees the ad and takes action afterward.
• Whenever a user clicks on the ad
• When a user clicks on the ad and takes action later.
• When conversion targets have been met

Question 40: What is an app install ad?

• an ad that runs on third-party services to help drive installs of your mobile app
• a Promoted Twitter Ad that allows you to reach audiences who are most likely to download your app
• a new kind of video ad from Twitter
• an ad that displays across the iOS and Google Play stores

Question 41: What is a tracking software development kit (SDK)?

• An app store analytics feature for advertisers
• A set of programming guidelines for app developers.
• A code package installed in your mobile app that can measure events related to app installs.
• A data visualization tool in Twitter ads manager.

Question 42: What are custom metrics?

• A set of default metrics based on common campaign objectives
• A customized report showing all results by objective
• A way to monitor data that is most important to you
• An algorithm used to tailor and target audiences automatically

Question 43: Which bidding strategy would you choose to auto-optimize to get the best results at the lowest price within your App Install campaign budget?

• Automatic bid
• All options will auto-optimize
• Target bid
• Maximum bid

Question 44: What is “attribution” in performance advertising?

• A system in which you assign credit to different advertising partners and platforms for driving conversion.
• An agreement with other Twitter account holders to include their handle or hashtag in an ad campaign.
• A method of tracking conversions associated with a particular hashtag.
• A legal requirement to credit authors and artists of content used in your campaign.

Question 45: How can your campaign reach audiences who have opted out of tracking, via Apple’s App Tracking Transparency?

• By specifically targeting audiences who use iOS devices during campaign setup.
• Work with an approved Mobile Measurement Partner (MMP) to leverage SKAdNetwork on Twitter
• It is not possible to continue engagement with audiences who have opted out of tracking.
• By paying for premium Twitter features and tools.

Question 46: What could happen if your bid is not competitive relative to other advertisers?

• You may be charged more than your bid.
• You can be sure of maximum results for the minimum price.
• Your campaign status will not be affected.
• Your campaign may not serve.

Question 47: What does App Activity Combination enable you to do?

• Automatically vary or randomize ad formats during a set campaign window.
• Make connections between events in Twitter through a mobile measurement provider.
• Segment and refine your App Activity Custom Audience based on the frequency and recency of user actions.
• Combine and analyze user behavior data from multiple campaigns.

Question 48: How are you charged when applying an app clicks goal?

• Your target bid sets the minimum amount to pay as the average cost per click.
• You pay the minimum charge plus clicks into the app store or directly into the app.
• You are only charged when a user clicks into the app store or directly into the app.
• You are charged for all clicks into the app or app store, plus all impressions that did not result in this action.

Question 49: What are mobile tailored audiences?

• A feature to target new mobile users based on device and use of Twitter app.
• A target audience of existing users of the app, manually created according to campaign objectives.
• A feature to target existing users, created automatically when app events in Twitter are linked through a mobile measurement provider.
• A term for audiences who have opted out of app teaching via Apple’s App Tracking Transparency.

Question 50: What happens when your overall budget is reached?

• Your campaign will stop serving until the next day.
• Your campaign will continue and you will be charged at the average CPC rate until you end the campaign.
• Your overall budget will automatically increase by 10%.
• Your campaign will stop serving until you increase the budget.

Introduction to Twitter Mobile App Campaigns

Running effective Twitter mobile app campaigns can help you drive installations, increase engagement, and maximize your app’s visibility. Here’s a guide to help you get started and optimize your campaigns:

1. Define Your Objectives

• App Installs: Focus on driving users to download your app.
• App Engagement: Encourage users to interact with your app after installation.
• In-App Actions: Promote specific actions within your app, like sign-ups or purchases.

2. Target the Right Audience

• Demographics: Tailor your audience based on age, gender, location, etc.
• Interests: Target users based on their interests and behaviors.
• Lookalike Audiences: Reach users similar to your existing customers.
• Custom Audiences: Retarget users who have previously interacted with your app or website.

3. Create Compelling Ads

• Visuals: Use eye-catching images or videos that showcase your app’s features and benefits.
• Copy: Write concise, persuasive text that highlights what makes your app valuable.
• Call-to-Action (CTA): Include a strong CTA that encourages users to take action, such as “Download Now” or “Get Started.”

4. Utilize Twitter Ad Formats

• App Install Cards: Feature a prominent CTA button that leads directly to the app store.
• App Engagement Ads: Target users who have already installed your app to drive engagement.
• Video Ads: Showcase your app in action to engage users visually and emotionally.

5. Optimize Landing Pages

• App Store Links: Ensure your app store links are easily accessible and lead directly to the app’s page.
• Consistency: Maintain consistency between your ad’s message and the landing page to improve conversion rates.

6. Leverage Twitter’s Features

• Tailored Audiences: Use Twitter’s tailored audiences to target specific user groups.
• Conversion Tracking: Implement Twitter’s conversion tracking to measure your campaign’s success and gather insights.
• Analytics: Monitor metrics like impressions, engagement rates, and conversion rates to gauge performance.

7. Budget and Bidding

• Set Your Budget: Determine your daily or total campaign budget based on your goals.
• Choose Bidding Strategy: Select between automatic or manual bidding to optimize your ad spend.

8. Test and Iterate

• A/B Testing: Test different ad variations to see what resonates best with your audience.
• Adjust Based on Performance: Analyze results and adjust your targeting, creatives, or budget to improve performance.

9. Engage with Users

• Respond to Feedback: Engage with users who comment on your ads or mention your app.
• Monitor Conversations: Keep an eye on relevant conversations to understand user sentiment and address any issues.

10. Compliance and Best Practices

• Follow Twitter’s Ad Policies: Ensure your ads comply with Twitter’s advertising guidelines.
• Respect User Privacy: Adhere to privacy regulations and be transparent about data usage.

By strategically planning and executing your Twitter mobile app campaigns, you can effectively drive app installations, enhance user engagement, and achieve your marketing objectives.

Twitter Launch and Connect Certification Exam Quiz Answers

Question 1: Where should you place your logo throughout your video creative?

• Top left corner
• Lower third
• You should not include your logo in video creative
• Top right corner

Question 2: What is the minimum number of ad formats you should use to maximize your success?

• 2-3
• 3-5
• 1-2
• 5-10

Question 3: What percentage of sales can be directly attributed to creative?

• 10%
• 47%
• 33%
• 20%

Question 4: People on Twitter are often the first to try, buy, and…

• Send a DM asking for more information
• Download a new game
• Forget about your ad
• Share new experiences with others

Question 5: What are the #ThreeSimpleRules for getting creative on Twitter? (select three)

• Keep it short & simple
• Use jump cuts and fast-changing visuals
• Create visual cues with clear logo placement and captions
• Include people & products in your videos

Question 6: Which launch phase involves fine-tuning details at the campaign level, including identifying target audiences, creating copy, and determining the campaign’s duration?

• None of the launch phases involve these things
• Activation
• Creative
• Flighting

Question 7: In general, how long should your Video Ads be on Twitter?

• 25-45 seconds
• 60-90 seconds
• 30-60 seconds
• 10-15 seconds

Question 8: People on Twitter are… (select three)

• Results-driven
• Mostly on iOS devices
• Influential
• Receptive

Question 9: What are the key themes of conversation?” is a question that helps define which of the following elements of a unique message’s construction?

• Target audience
• Topic of Connection
• Customized creative
• Brand story

Question 10: To drive awareness for your launch campaign, your flighting should be at least ___________ long.

• 2-3 weeks
• 5-10 weeks
• 1-2 weeks
• 3-6 weeks

Question 11: When you want to align with the topic, you can choose:

• Video Ads
• Trend Takeover+
• Timeline Takeover
• Trend Takeover

Question 12: If you pre-produce assets based on what you know will happen and publish them when the moment unfolds so they “feel” real-time, you are creating:

• Realtime content
• Immersed content
• Planned content
• Anticipated content

Question 13: Which of the following Twitter ad formats help you “go big on the reveal”? (select three)

• Timeline Takeover
• Trend Takeover
• Awareness campaigns
• Trend Takeover+

Question 14: Which of the following actions could lead your connect campaigns to 2X more engagement, 35% higher view-through, and 3X more cost efficiency.

• Expand your campaign window
• Expand your target audience
• Use multiple campaigns
• Use customized creatives

Question 15: Which of the following statements is correct about flighting strategy?

• You don’t need to understand the pulse of a conversation before joining it.
• It leads brands to build a phased approach to maximize impact pre / during / post-event.
• It does not take part in the peak of the conversation.
• It reinforces your connect campaign by extending the window after the peak.

Question 16: A successful connect strategy contains (select three):

• Connect strategy
• Flighting strategy
• Messaging strategy
• Engaging strategy

Question 17: The ways to connect on Twitter include (Select three):

• Events
• Occasions
• Topics
• Trends

Question 18: How do Twitter’s takeover products help you achieve a successful launch?

• Takeover products allow you to upload longer videos to Twitter.
• Takeover products allow you to direct message your audience at scale.
• Takeover products help you achieve mass awareness on Launch Day.
• Takeover products are Twitter’s most cost-effective ad solutions.

Question 19: Holiday seasons, International Women’s Day, and Valentine’s Day are all examples of what type of connect opportunity?

• Events
• Occasions
• None of these are connect opportunities
• Trends

Question 20: If you’re interested in significantly moving brand metrics, the length of your campaign should be…

• Longer
• Dependent on your budget
• Shorter
• Flight time does not impact brand metrics

Question 21: To build cultural relevance for your brand, your messaging should be based on a combination of (select three):

• Topic of connection
• Brand story
• Customized creative
• Target audience

Question 22: Launch Leaders use a phased approach to their flighting strategy, which includes…

• Tease, Reveal, and Reinforce
• Hype, Anticipate, and React
• Preview, Release, and Tech Support
• Launch Leaders do not use a phased approach.

Question 23: What are the five types of launches we identify on Twitter?

• New projects, new branding, new copyrights, new features, and new hires
• New products, new brands, new messaging, new promotions, and new features
• New cars, new logos, new movies, new TV shows, and new sales
• New companies, new management, new features, new offers, and new messaging

Question 24: What do we mean when we say “connect” on Twitter?

• Executing campaigns around global moments
• Communicating with key stakeholders and influencers
• Launching a new product that’s connected to a current trend
• Building relevance by being a part of the conversation

Question 25: What percentage of a consumer’s purchase decision is driven by their perception of a brand’s cultural relevance?

• 5%
• 25%
• 7%
• 10%

Question 26: What do we mean when we say “launch” on Twitter?

• Creating a new campaign to be released on a specific date
• Driving sales for a specific type of product
• Building awareness and interest in something new
• Announcing the event of a sale with a promoted Tweet

Question 27: Launch Leaders invest heavily leading up to their launch, spending on average up to ___ % of their total budget between the Tease + Reveal stages.

• 5%
• 10%
• 40%
• 25%

Question 28: Why is it essential for your brand to be culturally relevant? (select two)

• Cultural relevance is straightforward to obtain.
• Cultural relevance correlates better with brand metrics.
• Cultural relevance is a critical driver of the consumer’s purchase decision.
• Cultural relevance is every brand’s #1 objective.

Question 29: What are the five types of launch categories on Twitter?

• Product, brand, features, message, promotion
• Videos, images, websites, apps, sales
• Paid media, video views, announcements, apps, websites
• Sales, services, announcements, products, promotions

Question 30: ______________ maximizes your success by serving content before, during, and after your launch day.

• A content strategy
• A data-driven flighting schedule
• An activation plans
• Creative developed by an award-winning team

Question 31: Your goal for the reveal phase of your launch should be to…

• Achieve all of your KPIs in a single day
• Start conversations
• Drive mass awareness of your launch
• Increase your reach

Question 32: Why are captions so important for your videos on Twitter?

• Including captions can lead to longer view rates.
• Captions aren’t that important on Twitter.
• If your video has captions, Twitter will show your ad to more people.
• Captions help identify the music you’re using in your videos.

Question 33: Which ad format allows you to connect your content with over 200 brand-safe publishers?

• Amplify Sponsorship
• Trend Takeover
• Timeline Takeover
• Amplify Pre-roll

Question 34: True or False. Brands that invest early in building shareable content for their audiences tend to hit their Launch KPIs more often than those that don’t.

• False
• True

Question 35: What are the three phases of the connect flighting strategy? (select three)

• Hype
• React
• Participate
• Announce

Question 36: How many ad formats should you use to increase the probability of having a successful connect campaign?

• As many as you can
• Only 1
• 2-3
• More than 3

Question 37: When you want to be at the front and center of the topic, you can use:

• Poll
• Video ads for Website Clicks
• Timeline Takeover
• Video ads with Conversation Buttons

Question 38: Working from home, mindfulness, and activism are examples of which type of connect opportunity?

• Trends
• None of these are connect opportunities
• Events
• Occasions

Question 39: If you’re launching a new brand on Twitter, which metrics should you measure to judge your success? (select three)

• Intent
• Consideration
• Recall
• Awareness

Question 40: What did Bain identify as a significant differentiator for brands that had successful launch campaigns?

• Their use of Twitter as part of their launch strategy
• The industry the brand operates within
• Their overall budget
• Their use of cutting-edge creative

Question 41: Brands that hit their launch KPIs are ____ more likely to launch on Twitter.

• 1.1X
• 2X
• 2.3X
• not

Question 42: What percentage of marketers report missing their launch KPIs?

• 15%
• 20%
• 85%
• 50%

Question 43: What’s the advantage of running a connect campaign on Twitter rather than on other platforms?

• People on Twitter spend more time scrolling, so your ads are more likely to be seen.
• People come to Twitter to connect with what’s happening, which makes them more leaned in and receptive to your ads.
• Twitter ads are less intrusive.
• People on Twitter are more interested in ads.

Question 44: On launch day you should…

• Send DMs to your community
• Go big on the reveal to maximize awareness
• Tweet at least 2-3 times
• Create an email newsletter campaign

Question 45: Social video content should be designed for…

• The fastest download speeds
• Viewing on a large-screen TV
• A sound-off environment
• Use across all social platforms

Question 46: True or False: When choosing the best formats for your KPI, Video Ads with Conversation Buttons work best to build campaign awareness, message association, and intent.

• True
• False

Question 47: ________ is a premium, single-day, “mass awareness” ad package of Twitter’s most valuable video impressions.

• Trend Takeover
• Timeline Takeover
• Trend Takeover+
• Amplify Pre-roll Ads

Question 48: Why do people come to Twitter?

• Because they want to buy something.
• To stay up-to-date on the topics they care about and talk to others who share their interests.
• To create friendships with the brands they follow.
• To engage with companies via DMs.

Question 49: Award shows, music festivals, and sporting events are all examples of which type of connect opportunity?

• Events
• None of these are connect opportunities
• Trends
• Occasions

Introduction to Twitter Launch and Connect

Twitter is a popular social media platform that allows users to post and interact with messages known as “tweets.” Each tweet is limited to 280 characters and can include text, images, videos, and links. Since its launch in 2006, Twitter has become a key tool for real-time communication, news dissemination, and social networking.

Launching on Twitter:

1. Creating an Account: To get started, you’ll need to sign up for a Twitter account. You can do this via the Twitter website or mobile app by providing your name, phone number or email address, and a password. You’ll also choose a unique username (handle) that will identify you on the platform.
2. Profile Setup: Once your account is created, you can personalize your profile. This includes adding a profile picture, a cover photo, and a bio. Your bio is a short description that helps others understand who you are or what your account is about.
3. Following and Followers: Twitter operates on a follow system. You can follow other users to see their tweets in your feed, and others can follow you to see your tweets. Building a following often involves engaging with content and people relevant to your interests or niche.
4. Tweeting: With your account set up, you can start tweeting. Tweets are short messages you post to share thoughts, updates, or media. You can engage with others by replying to their tweets, retweeting their posts, or liking their content.

Connecting on Twitter:

1. Engage with Content: Engage with tweets by liking, retweeting, or replying. This interaction helps you become part of conversations and can attract attention to your own tweets.
2. Hashtags: Use hashtags (#) to join or start conversations on specific topics. Hashtags help categorize tweets and make it easier for others interested in those topics to find your content.
3. Direct Messages: Twitter allows private messaging through Direct Messages (DMs). You can use DMs to have private conversations with other users, provided they follow you or you both have opted to receive messages from each other.
4. Lists and Communities: Create or join lists to organize accounts into categories. Joining Twitter communities or participating in Twitter chats can also help you connect with like-minded individuals and groups.
5. Analytics and Feedback: Use Twitter’s analytics tools to track engagement and understand what content resonates with your audience. Feedback from interactions can guide your content strategy and help build a stronger presence on the platform.

By launching and connecting effectively on Twitter, you can build a network, stay informed, and engage with a global audience.

Twitter Ads Manager Fundamentals Certification Exam Quiz Answers

Question 1: The default filters in the Ads Manager are….? (Select three)

• Funding Source
• Objective
• Status
• International Views

Question 2: What are the three stages of Reporting Overview?

• Filters
• Metrics
• Exporting
• Cross-Border

Question 3: You need a ________________ to access Ads Manager.

• Twitter account
• business
• campaign
• audience

Question 4: When setting up your campaign, how is it best to decide your targets?

• Select everything to cover the most people.
• Choose 1 or 2 options that support your goal.

Question 5: What does the Audience estimator do?

• Suggests target demographics
• Calculates audience based on your selections
• Sets up refined audience targeting
• Recommends themes for future campaigns

Question 6: Home Dashboard provides you with a _____ day summary of your progress.

• 365
• 28
• 7
• 14

Question 7: On the Dashboard, which tab do you use to create your ads content?

• Campaigns
• Creatives
• Analytics
• Tools

Question 8: Which area can help you reach the right people for your campaign?

• App Manager
• Conversion Tracking
• Audiences
• Tag Library

Question 9: Go big on branding and be laser focused are 2 examples of ______________.

• Video best practices
• Tweet best practices
• Campaign best practices
• Analytics best practices

Question 10: Which budgets can be set? (Select all that apply)

• Daily
• Campaign
• Ad Group
• Out Of Home Engagements

Question 11: Where can you measure your return on ad spend for Performance Advertising?

• Conversion Tracking
• App Manager
• Ad Editor
• Tag Library

Question 12: Say your business wanted to drive conversation about an upcoming event, which campaign objective would you choose?

• Reach
• Engagements
• Followers
• Website Traffic

Question 13: 47% of sales performance can be attributed to ______________.

• Refined audience targeting choices
• Creative alone
• Adding subtitles to all media
• Combining the right target and good creative.

Question 14: The Tweet Activity Dashboard (TAD) can show you details of how many times people have….? (Select all that apply)

• Seen
• Retweeted
• Liked
• Called
• Replied

Question 15: You can refine your data views by using _________.

• Reach
• Filters
• Metrics
• Creatives

Question 16: Which of these is NOT a benefit of using the Tweet Composer?

• Simple Media Upload
• Preview
• Complex to use
• Media Upload how-to

Question 17: Where can you upload media? (select two)

• Media Library
• Tweet Composer
• Analytics Tab
• Events Manager

Question 18: Which of these are refined audience targeting? (select all that apply)

• Key Words
• Interest
• Events
• Household Income

Question 19: What are the main components of the marketing funnel? (select all that apply)

• Awareness
• Consideration
• Conversion
• Creation

Introduction to Twitter Ads Manager Fundamentals

Twitter Ads Manager is a powerful tool for creating, managing, and optimizing your Twitter advertising campaigns. Here’s a rundown of the fundamentals to help you get started:

1. Setting Up Your Twitter Ads Account

• Create a Twitter Ads Account:
  • Log in to your Twitter account.
  • Navigate to the Twitter Ads platform (ads.twitter.com).
  • Follow the prompts to set up your ads account.
• Billing Information:
  • Enter your payment details.
  • Choose your billing currency and set your budget limits.

2. Campaign Objectives

When creating a campaign, you’ll need to select an objective based on what you want to achieve. Twitter offers several objectives:

• Awareness: Increase the number of people who see your tweets.
• Consideration: Drive engagement or website visits.
• Conversion: Encourage specific actions on your website or app.

3. Campaign Structure

• Campaign:
  • The highest level of organization where you define your objective and overall budget.
• Ad Group:
  • Within a campaign, you create ad groups to set targeting options, bidding strategies, and more.
• Creatives:
  • The actual ads you create, which can be tweets, images, videos, or carousel ads.

4. Targeting Options

Twitter Ads Manager provides various targeting options to reach your audience:

• Demographics: Age, gender, location, language.
• Interests: Categories related to users’ interests.
• Behavioral: Based on user activity and engagement.
• Keywords: Keywords users have tweeted about or interacted with.
• Followers: Target users who follow specific accounts.
• Custom Audiences: Upload a list of contacts or use data from your website or app.

5. Budgeting and Bidding

• Budget:
  • Set a daily or total campaign budget.
  • Ensure it aligns with your campaign goals.
• Bidding:
  • Choose between automatic bidding (Twitter optimizes for the best results) or manual bidding (set your maximum bid for actions).

6. Ad Creatives

• Tweet Formats:
  • Single Image or Video Tweets: Visual content to engage users.
  • Carousel Ads: Multiple images or videos in a single ad.
  • Twitter Cards: Rich media experiences including website cards and app cards.
• Copy and Design:
  • Write compelling ad copy.
  • Use high-quality images or videos.
  • Ensure that your ad aligns with your campaign objective and branding.

7. Launching and Monitoring

• Launch:
  • Review your campaign settings and launch your campaign.
• Monitor Performance:
  • Use Twitter Ads Manager’s analytics to track metrics such as impressions, clicks, engagement, and conversions.
  • Adjust your targeting, bidding, and creative based on performance data.

8. Optimization

• A/B Testing:
  • Test different ad creatives, copy, and targeting options to see what works best.
• Adjust Budgets:
  • Reallocate budgets to higher-performing ad groups or campaigns.
• Refine Targeting:
  • Based on performance data, refine your audience targeting to improve results.

9. Reporting

• Custom Reports:
  • Generate reports to analyze performance across different campaigns, ad groups, and creatives.
• Metrics:
  • Key metrics include CTR (Click-Through Rate), CPC (Cost Per Click), CPM (Cost Per Thousand Impressions), and ROI (Return on Investment).

10. Compliance and Best Practices

• Ad Policies:
  • Adhere to Twitter’s advertising policies to ensure compliance.
• Best Practices:
  • Keep your audience’s preferences in mind.
  • Regularly review and adjust your campaigns based on performance and feedback.

By understanding these fundamentals, you can create effective Twitter ad campaigns that reach your target audience and achieve your marketing goals.

CS406: Information Security Exam Quiz Answers

Question 1: How are threats and vulnerabilities different?

• Threats are the product of long-term vulnerabilities in a system
• Vulnerabilities are the cause of threats to information systems
• Threats are the possibility of an exploit, while vulnerabilities are system weaknesses

Question 2: When reviewing the risk management process at a newly formed organization, the information security professional notices that all the steps have not been considered as part of the process. The process includes framing and responding but should also include

• auditing and reporting risks
• controlling and identifying risks
• identifying and reporting risks
• assessing and monitoring risks

Question 3: What occurs in the preparation stage of the incident response process?

• Tools and resources are gathered and the incident response team is formed and trained
• A lessons-learned meeting is held to prepare the team based on the history of incidents within the organization
• Data is collected on the number of incidents, the time spent handling each incident, and an assessment of each incident
• A log is kept of evidence information, such as hostname, the person handling the evidence, the time and date of the incident, and the location of the evidence

Question 4: In addition to being a physical type of security control, illuminating a building by installing outside lights as a protective measure is also an example of which of the following kinds of security control?

• Compensating
• Detective
• Deterrent
• Preventive

Question 5: You want to prevent malicious email within a company by providing layered security, or defense-in-depth. Which of the following would be a good strategy for doing this?

• Have information technology professionals read all email before the email is viewed by the employees
• Provide security awareness training, install antivirus and antimalware email filters, and patch all company laptops
• Provide security awareness training, password-lock all laptops when not in use, and provide privacy screens for monitors
• Have the exchange mail server scan all incoming mail that passes the antivirus software and then have each department head review it before the mail is sent to employees

Question 6: A phishing email sent to all management level employees appears to have originated from the HR department. The email is asking for confidential information that could provide an attacker with usernames and passwords that will provide system access. What is the best way for ensuring that managers recognize the email as an attack and act appropriately?

• Encrypt all email that is authentic when addressing management
• Send out an email to notify management that the email is a phishing email
• Post a banner when the email application is opened that warns about phishing attacks
• Provide security awareness training to educate management and to modify their behavior

Question 7: COBIT 5 is a proprietary framework written by ISACA. What does it specify?

• How to mitigate risks identified in the risk management process
• Standards and best practices for information technology functions
• Processes for governance and management of information technology
• The guidelines for information technology as required in NIST SP 800-39

Question 8: Which of the following are hacktivists, insiders, and script kiddies examples of?

• Attacks
• Threats
• Threat agents
• Vulnerabilities

Question 9: What is the purpose of a dictionary attack, and what is the method of attack?

• To corrupt system data by inserting lists of common words and phrases
• To corrupt system data by inserting every possible combination of numbers
• To gain access to a system by using lists of common words and phrases
• To gain access to a system by using every possible combination of numbers

Question 10: You have received four emails from one of your acquaintances, Greg. Which of the following email addresses should make you suspicious that it is a spoofed email from Greg?

• greg@mit.edu
• greg@yahoo.com
• greg@irs.gmail.com
• greg@bankofamerica.com

Question 11: What kind of attack uses impersonation to gain information?

• Phishing
• Pretexting
• Tailgating
• Whaling

Question 12: Which type of attack could hijack a session or send a user to a malicious site to steal sensitive information?

• SQL injection
• Brute force attack
• Denial of service (DoS)
• Cross-site scripting (XSS)

Question 13: You come across a type of malicious code that encrypts a victim’s files and only restores the files when certain conditions are met. What kind of attack have you found?

• Adware
• Spyware
• Ransomware
• A polymorphic virus

Question 14: How does a denial of service (DoS) or a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack a system?

• By remotely powering down a system
• By installing ransomware on a system
• By overloading a system with requests
• By using spyware to find system vulnerabilities

Question 15: One of the earliest types of ciphers was the Caesar cipher. What was its purpose, and what method of encryption did it use?

• It was used to send secret messages to Caesar’s allies, and was based on hiding messages in plain sight
• It was used to send military messages, and was based on substitution using a predetermined shift number
• It was used to conceal the location of government officials, and was based on scrambled messages on a map
• It was used to hide the location of gold reserves, and was based on the transposition or rearrangement of letters

Question 16: The goal of cryptography is to protect which of the following?

• The availability of information and the confidentiality of systems
• The availability of information and the authentication of data and systems
• The most highly compartmentalized, secure data in an information system
• The confidentiality and integrity of information and provide a means for authentication

Question 17: Which keys are shared in asymmetric key encryption and which keys, if any, are shared in symmetric key encryption?

• Asymmetric shares the public key; symmetric does not share a key
• Asymmetric shares the public key; symmetric shares the secret key
• Asymmetric shares the secret key; symmetric shares the public key
• Asymmetric shares the public and the private key; symmetric shares the secret key

Question 18: Which of the following are blowfish and two fish examples of?

• Block ciphers
• Hashing algorithms
• Encryption standards
• Asymmetric key algorithms

Question 19: What is the difference between a hash and a message authentication code (MAC) used in a hashed message authentication code (HMAC)?

• A hash has one input and a MAC has two inputs that includes a secret key
• A hash is a one-way encryption and a MAC includes a secret key
• A hash is an encrypted message and a MAC is an encrypted key
• A hash provides for encryption and decryption and a MAC is a one-way encryption

Question 20: Why is access control needed in information systems?

• To prevent authorized users from launching system attacks and stealing classified data
• To guide black-hat hackers to honeypots to gather information about their intent and tactics
• To allow white-hat hackers to perform penetration tests on systems to ensure system security
• To prevent unauthorized use of data or to prevent data from being used in an unauthorized manner

Question 21: What is the difference between permissions and rights?

• Rights can be changed, but permissions cannot
• Rights are what users have before permissions are assigned to them
• Rights are what a user can do, while permissions apply to a file or folder
• Permissions are assigned to files so that users with rights can read, write, or execute them

Question 22: Why is discretionary access control (DAC) called discretionary and mandatory access control (MAC) called non-discretionary?

• DAC provides for security discretion, while MAC does not
• DAC uses discretionary file labels, while MAC uses mandatory file labels
• DAC access is based on the discretion of the owner, while in MAC it is based on security labels
• DAC is based on the discretion of the user, and MAC is based on predetermined rules that cannot be changed

Question 23: What is the difference between role-based access control (RBAC) and rule-based (RB-RBAC) access control?

• RBAC is discretionary access while RB-RBAC is non-discretionary access
• RBAC is based on assigned tasks of an employee, while RB-RBAC is based on specified parameters
• RBAC is based on the employee’s security level, while RB-RBAC is based on the IP address of the user
• RBAC is restricts access based on least privilege, and RB-RBAC provides access based on core work hours

Question 24: Passwords are the most common form of authentication. What are some rules that should always be used to enforce password security?

• Passwords should include common words and the length be limited to be easier for users to remember
• Passwords should be stored in a file on the computer system in case the user forgets and password aging should be employed
• Passwords should be kept secret, be encrypted and hashed, and the number of attempts to enter a password should be limited
• Password length should be 16 characters or more and contain special characters that are created by the system administrator for the user

Question 25: During authentication, when could a user receive a type II error?

• When authenticating with something you are
• When authenticating with something you have
• When authenticating with something you know
• When authenticating with a combination of human factors

Question 26: How is multifactor authentication more secure than single-factor authentication?

• The password is kept secret and encrypted, which requires hackers to have a decryption key
• Hackers must find where to enter the password not once, but twice to gain access to the system
• It encrypts the password twice using two different algorithms, instead of once like in single-factor
• If a password is discovered, the hacker cannot access the system unless another piece of information is obtained

Question 27: If employees at a company are seen writing passwords down and explain that it is because they have too many passwords to remember, what is a reasonable solution for an information security professional?

• Implement single sign-on (SSO) technology
• Force an immediate password change on all systems
• Allow employees to use one password for all applications
• Report the employees to upper management for acceptable use policy infringement

Question 28: What is the purpose of the key distribution center (KDC) in Kerberos?

• To provide for authentication using asymmetric encryption
• To provide for authentication without sending the password over an insecure network
• To manage tickets that provide for private and public keys for encryption and decryption
• To manage passwords using encryption for secure transmission over insecure networks

Question 29: Which of the following best describes Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)?

• A method of multi-factor authentication
• A token used to authenticate a user to a server
• A method of authentication used by directory services
• A directory database that is less secure as indicated by the term lightweight

Question 30: What type of encryption is used by public key infrastructure and by digital certificates?

• A version of encryption created by Diffee-Hellman specifically for PKI and digital certificates
• Symmetric encryption, which has two keys, one of which is used to create digital certificates
• A PKI encryption algorithm that produces two keys, and both keys are used to provide for digital certificates
• Asymmetric encryption, which has a public and private key, and digital certificates use the same private key

Question 31: How does network zoning protect for confidentiality?

• By using firewalls to protect zones from data being viewed by users of adjacent zones
• By separating network zones so that if one is breached there is no access to other zones
• By using multiple encryption methods so that if one zone is breached the data cannot be unencrypted in the other zones
• By using routers to route incoming traffic by internet protocol (IP) addresses away from the network to protect from intrusion

Question 32: Which of the following statements about the placement of a firewall is correct?

• For stateful inspection firewalls, the firewall should be on the perimeter; for stateless inspection, the firewall should be internal
• For a wide area network (WAN), the firewall should be internal; for a local area network (LAN), the firewall should be on the perimeter
• A stateless inspection firewall is slower to make a connection and is therefore on the perimeter; a stateful inspection firewall is faster and should be placed in a central location
• Stateless inspection firewalls offer better performance and should be on the perimeter; stateful inspection firewalls are faster to make connections and are used to connect two networks

Question 33: Many companies allow employees to bring your own device (BYOD) and use it to complete business tasks for the company. This cuts down on device cost for the employer, but it can also incur other costs. Why does the fact that mobile devices are compact and popular create a greater security risk?

• Employees may mix their personal information with the employer’s data on the device
• Employees may overuse bandwidth and prevent the employer from performing their primary function
• Employees might allow access to confidential employer data, or lose that data via theft or device loss
• Children and relatives of employees may use the device to play games or conduct other activities against the employer’s acceptable use policy (AUP)

Question 34: In what state would a system be considered completely secure and hardened from all threats and vulnerabilities?

• When the hard drive is encrypted
• When turned off and locked in a safe
• When kept in a secure area while in use
• When a password is used that can never be cracked

Question 35: Once antivirus software has been installed, what should occur to ensure that the antivirus software is working to protect the system?

• Manually run the software and delete all infected files
• Scan the system periodically and leave the antivirus software running
• Write a script to run the antivirus software and review the antivirus log files periodically
• Disconnect the system from the network and place the system in a secure location while running the software

Question 36: Which of the following best describes an operating system (OS) firewall?

• A set of iptables that lists ports that can accept or reject traffic
• A device that protects the system by filtering traffic into and out of the system
• A list of commands that are set to accept or deny and are not in any particular order
• An ordered list of information for comparison to determine if traffic is encrypted properly

Question 37: Scanners assess known vulnerabilities on a system by following a series of steps. What is the process that a scanner follows to find system vulnerabilities?

• Look for a backdoor to a system, and once they gain system access, look for username and password files
• Probe a system like a pen test to find vulnerabilities, and then compare those vulnerabilities to a list of known vulnerabilities
• Identify the operating system and services running on open ports, then check for vulnerabilities that are applicable to the specific service versions
• Gain system access and run commands from a database of system vulnerabilities to determine if vulnerabilities exist on the system, then produce a vulnerability report

Question 38: What is the correct placement of intrusion protection systems (IPS) and intrusion detection systems (IDS)?

• An IPS is placed within a firewall, while an IDS is placed at system endpoints
• An IPS is placed on servers, while an IDS is placed on the network on a router to protect system traffic
• An IPS is placed in-line with the traffic, while an IDS can be placed anywhere on the network segment or can have traffic forwarded to it to be analyzed
• An IPS is placed at system end points to analyze packets as they enter the system, while an IDS is placed on hosts to monitor the actions of system users and to protect files

Question 39: Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) and host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are both intrusion detection systems with the purpose of protecting against attackers. What differentiates NIDS from HIDS?

• NIDS is more expensive than HIDS, since it requires more hardware
• NIDS provides logs that are simpler to analyze than HIDS, so both are used together
• NIDS monitors network traffic, while HIDS monitors system activity on individual hosts on the network
• NIDS is more efficient and produces results quicker than HIDS, while HIDS provides more detailed results

Question 40: What is the purpose of a security incident and event management (SIEM) system?

• To repair a system after an incident occurs
• To close vulnerabilities to protect against incidents as they occur
• To accumulate information from network sensors and alert analysts of occurring incidents
• To scan and aggregate capabilities for many systems at one time so that skilled technicians are not required for monitoring

Question 41: Which of the following devices may cause a need for electronic data privacy protection?

• A radio-controlled fire truck presented as a child’s toy on his/her birthday
• A digital watch used to keep time and reveals to the owner that they are late for work
• A television remote control that controls more than one television and is used on a daily basis
• A health tracker that monitors sleep and can detect an illness that can be used by insurance companies

Question 42: The company’s network has recently had an increase in logged attacks. Management determines that they are not appropriately providing the network with the appropriate defense-in-depth steps as needed. Many company employees are teleworking and are remotely connecting to the network. Which of the following methods could the company use to provide a defense-in-depth strategy for the network?

• Patching and physical access control
• Firewalls and virtual private networks (VPNs)
• Firewalls and operating system (OS) antivirus software
• Security awareness training and revised access policies

Question 43: An organization with a high number of security incidents related to unintentional mistakes by personnel has recently seen a decline in security incidents. Management previously required information security professionals to take action to reduce the number of incidents related to personnel. Which of the following would most likely cause this result?

• Password changes due to forced resets
• Newly required two-factor authentication methods
• Behavioral changes due to security awareness training
• Enforced entry restrictions due to the hiring of front desk security personnel

Question 44: Which of the following best describes a spoofing attack?

• Communication that comes from known sources that is nefarious in nature
• Communication that is from unknown sources and should always be examined
• Communication from a known source that appears to be from an unknown source
• Communication from an unknown source that appears to be from a known source

Question 45: Many organizations require document shredding to prevent which of the following?

• Whaling attacks
• Phishing attacks
• Pretexting attacks
• Dumpster diving attacks

Question 46: What is the mechanism for cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks?

• Rootkits
• Spoofing
• Malicious code injection
• Password cracking software

Question 47: If you discover a program that has been installed by a hacker on a system that performs the expected function but also runs malicious code in the background, what kind of threat agent is it?

• A rootkit
• Spyware
• A logic bombs
• A Trojan horse

Question 48: Bob receives an email from Sally that has her digital signature, which is proof that the email was from Sally. The fact that Sally cannot deny that she sent the email is a goal of cryptography. Which of the following concepts does this example demonstrate?

• Validity
• Secrecy
• Non-repudiation
• Account availability

Question 49: Which of the following is a difference between symmetric and asymmetric key algorithms?

• Symmetric key algorithms are slower than asymmetric key algorithms
• Symmetric key algorithms were replaced by asymmetric key algorithms to provide for better security
• Symmetric key algorithms are typically used for smaller amounts of data than are asymmetric key algorithms
• Symmetric key algorithms provide for confidentiality and authenticity, while asymmetric key algorithms provide for confidentiality and non-repudiation

Question 50: The Rivest cipher (RC2) was developed in the 1980s and replaced DES. How was RC2 a stronger cipher?

• RC2 had a larger key size, which provided stronger encryption
• DES had a variable key size, causing it to be weaker than RC2
• DES was cracked and RC2 was not, proving that RC2 was the stronger cipher
• RC2 had a smaller key size, which allowed it to encrypt more quickly than DES

Question 51: Bob has the appropriate credentials and clearance to access a system. He is still not allowed access to the system because it does not directly relate to his job or position. What is this type of restriction?

• Confidential
• Need to know
• System rights
• Secret clearance

Question 52: In which of these scenarios should an organization choose rule-based access control (RB-RBAC) over role-based access control (RBAC)?

• When it wants to control access based on the job description of the users
• When it wants to control access from a discretionary perspective based on file ownership
• When it wants the controls to affect all users and does not want to use a control based on identity
• When it wants to control access to system files based on the need to know and the classification of the data

Question 53: Which of the following is an example of token-based authentication?

• Scanning an index finger for entry onto a machine room floor
• Providing a facial recognition scan for access to an application on a cell phone
• After entering identification information, an application sends a text with a verification code
• Entering a username and password to log into an application after obtaining access to the computer system

Question 54: What is an advantage of sign-on (SSO) technology?

• Its passwords are simpler and easier to remember
• It increases the speed of a system by reducing authentication processing times
• It allows a user to log in forever, thereby cutting down on the time needed for user authentication
• It reduces the number of requests for password changes and reduces time users spend authenticating

Question 55: Which of the following is a difference between Terminal Access Controller Access Control System (TACACS+) and Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)?

• RADIUS encrypts passwords, while TACACS+ encrypts all communication
• RADIUS is a proprietary protocol, while TACACS+ is an open standard protocol
• RADIUS is used for device administration, while TACACS+ is used for network access
• RADIUS separates authentication, authorization, and accountability, while TACACS+ combines all three

Question 56: How is a man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack prevented in public key infrastructure (PKI)?

• By using a public key to encrypt a message and a private key to decrypt the message
• By the sender and receiver having trust that they are the appropriate sender and receiver
• By using a digital certificate issued by a trusted third party known as a certificate authority (CA)
• By verifying the email address of the sender for verification that ensures the message was from the expected sender

Question 57: Firewalls block and filter traffic according to firewall rules. How do firewall rules function?

• They are determined by the user sending or receiving the traffic
• They are matched from bottom to top and are rejected only if there is a match
• They are matched in sequence from first to last with an action of either accept, reject, or drop
• They are dropped or accepted depending on whether the traffic is incoming or outgoing traffic

Question 58: Connections between systems or organizations originally was done using leased lines through expensive T1 connections. Tunneling is now used to transmit data over public networks. What technology secures data in a tunnel?

• Hashing and salting
• Wrappers and hardening
• Obfuscation and encoding
• Encapsulation and encryption

Question 59: What are some methods that can be used to harden a personal device such as an iPhone?

• Only use the device, when necessary, remove all applications, and remove all personal data
• Turn Bluetooth on only when in use, do not jailbreak the device, and keep the device patched to the most current version
• Never connect the device to Wi-Fi or to another Bluetooth device, keep the device in airplane mode when not in use, and turn off location settings
• Avoid using the camera such as when using FaceTime, do not upload information into social networking sites, and lock the phone in a drawer when not in use

Question 60: When setting up iptables what is the most critical task?

• The syntax as incorrect syntax will be ignored
• The order of the rules as the first rule matching the traffic is used
• The drop and accept commands as the drop command is obeyed first
• The port numbers as the system will lose its connection to the administrator is improperly configured

Question 61: What is the difference between intrusion protection systems (IPS) and intrusion detection systems (IDS)?

• An IPS provides for detection, while an IDS prevents attacks
• An IPS corrects the damage done by an attacker, while an IDS detects an attack
• An IPS proactively reacts to prevent attacks, while an IDS provides for detection or after-the-fact technology
• An IPS resembles a firewall and blocks attacks, while an IDS resembles a honeypot and monitors an attacker

Question 62: What are some strengths of host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS)?

• They can be used to replace iptables on a system
• They are inexpensive and require little maintenance
• They can verify the success of an attack and require no additional hardware
• They are simple to use and can work on systems where the configuration consistently changes

Question 63: What characteristics of web application vulnerability scanners (WAVS) allow us to describe them as dynamic application security testing tools (DAST)?

• They test the application while it is being used
• They are always current as they are consistently being updated
• They are always active, scanning the application whether the application is off or on
• The scanner runs against every application on the system and not just the web application

Question 64: Of the following, how might a camera be used that would cause a need for electronic data protection?

• Automatic traffic enforcement
• Thwarting or monitoring illegal activity
• Facial recognition and the movement of individuals
• Filming wild animals to learn about their hunting habits

Question 65: What is one main difference between the US Privacy Act of 1974 and the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)?

• They are similar, but the US Privacy Act of 1974 has been invalidated and is no longer in effect
• The US Privacy Act of 1974 differs from the GDPR in that it is not a law and all states do not have to adhere to its conditions
• The US Privacy Act of 1974 only provides protection to US citizens, but the GDPR protects privacy data for everyone when the data is collected in the European Union (EU)
• The US Privacy Act of 1974 protects the privacy data of US citizens outside the US, while the GDPR protects privacy data for members of the European Union (EU) while outside the EU

Question 66: When developing the risk management process, sources and methods used to acquire threat information in the risk framing step is the input to the next step in the risk management process. Consequently, subsequent steps provide input to the next step in the process. What is the progression or steps that follow the risk framing step?

• Risk assessment, risk monitoring, and risk reporting
• Risk assessment, risk response, and risk monitoring
• Risk valuation, risk monitoring, and risk reporting
• Risk identification, risk monitoring, and risk response

Question 67: Which of the following is an example of a type of control that is physical and a deterrent?

• A lock
• A fence
• A mantrap
• A motion detector

Question 68: You are talking with one of your acquaintances, and they ask you questions based on personal knowledge that could be used to obtain a password reset on your accounts. What would a good company security awareness training have to say about these kinds of social engineering attempts?

• Due to behavioral characteristics humans are the weakest link in security
• Since no one can be trusted, you should change your passwords every 60 days
• Since human nature is to be trusting, providing the information will usually not be an issue
• When something like this happens, you should call the police and inform them of an attack

Question 69: What is the purpose of the PCI DSS security framework?

• It is a standard for keeping credit card data safe and reducing fraud
• It is a standard for protecting businesses from liability from credit card fraud
• It is a standard that protects individuals from being overcharged by vendors
• It is a standard that protects vendors from the loss of money due to credit card fraud

Question 70: Which of the following are the possibility of a hurricane, tornado, loss of power, or data corruption examples of?

• Attacks
• Threats
• Threat agents
• Vulnerabilities

Question 71: What does a brute force attack do?

• Hijacks a session
• Uses a fake MAC address to spoof a device
• Attempts all possible password combinations
• Uses malformed information packets to shut down a system

Question 72: Which of the following kinds of systems are vulnerable to cross-site scripting (XSS) and SQL injection attacks?

• Networks
• Databases
• Web applications
• Operating systems

Question 73: During which of the following scenarios could a server potentially be under a denial of service (DoS) attack?

• When the server shuts down due to a power failure
• When data is lost because a log file has filled up a mount point on the server
• When the server is flooded with requests that deny users access to the server
• When the root password is breached, and the files are corrupted and deleted by an attacker

Question 74: What type of encryption is the Diffee-Hellman algorithm, and what is it based on?

• Asymmetric; based on a 16-digit number
• Asymmetric; based on prime numbers
• Symmetric; based on one-way encryption
• Symmetric; based on square numbers

Question 75: What should happen before a user is given access to system data?

• The user must identify and be declared trustworthy to access sensitive data
• The user must identify, prove their identity, and be authorized to access the data
• The user must enter a username and password and then request priority access to the data as needed
• The user’s system access should be checked to determine if the user should be provided access to the data

Question 76: Which of the following is an example of the concept of least privilege?

• Granting a user the privileges necessary only to accomplish assigned duties
• Granting a user the minimum amount of privileges and then increasing privileges as needed
• Granting a user maximum privilege and then removing privileges not in use by monitoring those privileges over time
• Granting a user the minimum amount of privileges and then removing those privileges the user is not actively working

Question 77: Bob is hired by a government agency to configure access control. Due to the type of agency where Bob is working, the data is primarily classified. What type of access control model should Bob use?

• Mandatory access control (MAC)
• Role-based access control (RBAC)
• Discretionary access control (DAC)
• Rule-based access control (RB-RBAC)

Question 78: What is the major concern of authenticating using “something you have”?

• It can be lost and used to authenticate someone other than the intended user
• It can be duplicated and used by a user other than the intended user
• It could have undetected errors and will not authenticate the intended user
• It is not secure because anyone can create the same device for authentication

Question 79: What type of authentication is used when entering a username or a password?

• Mutual authentication
• Single-factor authentication
• Two-factor authentication
• Multi-factor authentication

Question 80: Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) uses short abbreviations for data, such as ou and dn, and arranges data in a hierarchical manner. Which of the following does this allow LDAP to do?

• Authenticate using a third-party server
• Provide for authentication, authorization, and accounting
• A downward categorization of two parts, the authentication server and the ticket-granting server
• Portray relationships between people, departments, and organizations passwords and usernames

Question 81: What is the advantage of a honeypot over a firewall?

• Firewalls protect a network’s perimeter, while a honeypot can identify internal threats
• Firewall settings cannot be changed once they are set, but honeypots can be changed at will
• More than one firewall must be on a system to secure it, while one honeypot is all that is needed
• Firewalls protect only incoming data, while a honeypot can protect both incoming and outgoing data

Question 82: What is the method used by a Security Incident and Event Management (SIEM) to provide data to a security professional?

• A SIEM collects logs from all systems on a network and attempts to correlate related security events
• A SIEM collects vulnerabilities from all systems on a network and categories them according to the level of risk
• A SIEM reviews security incidents and protects the system using event management techniques that avoids detection by attackers
• A SIEM manages security incidents on a network by alerting the administrator and patching systems to prevent an attack from being successful

Question 83: Smartphones have replaced many other devices, such as cameras, appointment books, and alarm clocks. Which of the following is an example of how smartphones have increased the need for electronic data privacy protection?

• They have caller ID, which identifies the caller’s phone number
• They use GPS or wireless network data to identify a user’s location
• Their lockscreen mechanisms are easy to break, and sensitive data can be accessed easily
• They store data unencrypted and transmit data in ways that can be intercepted by nearby attackers

Question 84: What is the right to be forgotten that is provided by the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)?

• Individuals do not have to respond to requests for information and can block callers
• An individual has the right in certain situations to have their personal data erased without delay
• Individuals have the right to have their privacy data redacted from files so they can never be reviewed again
• When the appropriate type of request is made, an individual can view information stored on a system and delete specific privacy information themselves

Question 85: The first denial of service (DoS) attack on an information system was caused by the Morris Worm. Due to these types of attacks, what did information system professionals start doing to protect the availability of systems?

• Brought in outside auditors to determine system vulnerabilities
• Used scanners to scan for vulnerabilities in the network and operating systems
• Changed system passwords and required all users to change their passwords as well
• Harden systems by patching regularly and installing antimalware and antivirus software

Question 86: John logs into a system and finds that he can view the personal data of other users in the system. Which tenet of information security has been broken in this system?

• Availability
• Confidentiality
• Integrity
• Privacy

Question 87: Which of the following types of assessment determines whether a tornado would be more destructive to a computer facility than an earthquake?

• Risk assessment
• Threat assessment
• Vulnerability assessment
• Environmental assessment

Question 88: Administrative controls are used as security measures for employees. When designing a defense-in-depth method using administrative controls, which of the following are the most appropriate controls?

• Computer patching and email scanning
• Telephone monitoring and building access
• Security awareness training and written policies
• Written procedures and non-disclosure agreements (NDAs)

Question 89: How do threats and threat agents differ?

• A threat protects against an exploit of a vulnerability, while a threat agent facilitates an attack
• A threat takes advantage of a vulnerability, while a threat agent protects against an exploit of a vulnerability
• A threat is the potential danger that a vulnerability may be exploited, while a threat agent facilitates an attack
• A threat exploits a vulnerability, while a threat agent facilitates an attack and takes advantage of a vulnerability

Question 90: There is no way to tell if a phone number is being spoofed. What is the best way to combat a phone number spoofing attack when the number displayed on the caller ID is unknown?

• Do not answer the call
• Call the number back after they call you
• Answer the call and respond briefly to questions
• Call the police when you know the number is spoofed

Question 91: What kind of attack happens when a person follows another person through a locked door?

• Whaling
• Phishing
• Tailgating
• Shoulder surfing

Question 92: Why are backdoors created by software developers considered dangerous?

• They allow attackers to ransom the application once it is in use
• They can cause a buffer overflow attack on the system that hosts the application
• They allow for a secret, unauthorized way to access an application after the software has been designed
• They automatically launch an escalation of privilege attack once the application is in use and the timing of the attack is unknown

Question 93: Which of the following is an advantage of asymmetric key algorithms over symmetric key algorithms?

• Faster encryption
• Easier key distribution
• Allow for session keys
• Less expensive to develop

Question 94: What is the primary advantage of using mandatory access control (MAC) over discretionary access control (DAC)?

• MAC is less costly than DAC
• MAC is more secure than DAC
• MAC is easier to scale than DAC
• MAC is simpler to implement than DAC

Question 95: In Kerberos, once a session is set up through the key distribution center (KDC), how do the procedures differ for the second session?

• The next session is not possible, since only one session is allowed
• Subsequent sessions after the first session are faster and do not involve the KDC
• Subsequent sessions after the first session authenticate using the same process involving the KDC
• The next session after the first session is more complex, because a different authentication process must be used

Question 96: If Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) uses encryption, unlike Diameter, how can Diameter be said to be more secure than RADIUS?

• Diameter uses public key infrastructure (PKI) to protect data
• Diameter uses a new, secret method of scrambling data that is better than encryption
• Diameter is protected by internet protocol security (IPsec) or transport layer security (TLS)
• Diameter has a built-in scrambling technique that is not considered encryption as well as firewalls

Question 97: Network redundancy provides for network reliability. What does it mean to have network redundancy?

• Two full networks run in tandem; if one fails, traffic is sent to the other
• When the network fails, there is an alternate network path to route data
• The network is straightforward and allows for one reliable main network path
• When the network fails, data is stored as a backup until the network can be restored

Question 98: Which of the following best explains packet filtering?

• Packets are filtered using the criteria of accept, deny, or reject
• Groups of data are combined into a packet and filtered based on the state of the data
• Traffic is filtered according to how the packet that contains the data was formed
• Traffic is formed as packets with information about where and how it should be delivered in the header

Question 99: What do websites use Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) for?

• To ensure data is not inadvertently modified
• To ensure transmitted information is encrypted
• To provide the fastest method of data transport
• To protect data from a man-in-the-middle attack

Question 100: What are some methods that system administrators might use to harden a server?

• Use iptables to reject all traffic
• Turn off all applications and remove all user accounts
• Turn off telnet, disable unnecessary services, and patch regularly
• Close all ports and reject all virtual private network (VPN) connections

Question 101: Why is antimalware needed in addition to antivirus software?

• To create honeypots that quarantine malware
• To detect polymorphic code that is unique to every attack
• To allow for a more comprehensive database for signature comparison
• To allow for the use of antivirus software, since antivirus is part of antimalware

Question 102: Security Content Automation Protocol (OpenSCAP) is the open-source tool that is recommended by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-126. What is the purpose of this tool?

• To define all possible vulnerabilities for an operating system (OS)
• To close all vulnerabilities that can occur on an operating system (OS)
• To provide a database of system vulnerabilities that can be updated and edited
• To find vulnerabilities and configuration errors on either a Windows or a Linux system

Question 103: What are the advantages and disadvantages of signature-based IDS?

• New attacks can be detected, but signatures are difficult to accumulate
• A system can quickly compare signatures, but the signatures can arbitrarily change
• Signatures are difficult to fake and can be provided digitally, but the database of signatures is difficult to maintain
• There are low false positives, but it is difficult to compare large volumes of packets to the entire signature database

Question 104: What type of intrusion detection should be used to detect for back door attacks?

• Host-based intrusion detection systems
• Network-based intrusion detection systems
• Anomaly-based intrusion detection systems
• Signature-based intrusion detection systems

Question 105: How has the European General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) affected privacy regulations around the world?

• Since it has been approved and enforced by the United Nations (UN), UN members are now required to enact similar laws in their countries
• It has increased EU countries’ tax revenue to such a degree that other countries are considering similar data privacy laws
• It addresses the protection of personal data of EU members even when data is maintained outside the EU, so it is slowly being adopted by other countries
• It provides online privacy protection for EU members while inside the EU, and other countries’ citizens have overwhelmingly asked that their home governments adopt similar laws

Introduction to Information Security

Information Security is a broad field focused on protecting information from unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or destruction. It encompasses various strategies, practices, and technologies designed to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information. Here are some key aspects of Information Security:

1. Confidentiality: Ensuring that information is only accessible to those who are authorized to see it. This often involves encryption, access controls, and secure authentication mechanisms.
2. Integrity: Ensuring that information is accurate and has not been tampered with. Integrity is maintained through hashing, digital signatures, and checksums.
3. Availability: Ensuring that information and systems are available to authorized users when needed. This involves implementing redundant systems, backups, and disaster recovery plans.
4. Authentication: Verifying the identity of users or systems before granting access. Common methods include passwords, multi-factor authentication (MFA), and biometrics.
5. Authorization: Determining what actions an authenticated user or system is permitted to perform. This involves setting up permissions and access controls.
6. Risk Management: Identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks to information security. This includes conducting risk assessments and implementing controls to minimize potential threats.
7. Incident Response: Developing and executing plans to respond to security breaches or other incidents. This includes detecting, analyzing, and recovering from incidents.
8. Compliance: Adhering to relevant laws, regulations, and standards related to information security, such as GDPR, HIPAA, or ISO/IEC 27001.
9. Security Awareness Training: Educating employees and stakeholders about security best practices and how to recognize and respond to potential threats.
10. Physical Security: Protecting physical access to information systems and infrastructure, such as data centers and server rooms.

The field of Information Security is dynamic and continually evolving to address new threats and technologies. Staying current with best practices and emerging trends is crucial for effective information protection.

CS403: Introduction to Modern Database Systems Exam Quiz Answers

Question 1: Which of the following is information? Select one:

• 32
• It is 32.
• It is 32 degrees.
• It is 32 degrees Fahrenheit.

Question 2: Which of the following is data? Select one:

• 32
• I am 32
• It is 32 degrees.
• It is 32 outside.

Question 3: Which of the following best describes a database? Select one:

• A system for managing data
• A set of data for a particular application
• A major subsystem of an operating system
• A reusable, organized collection of related data

Question 4: What are databases generally used for today? Select one:

• Backing up hard drives or other storage disks
• Recording the behavior of real time embedded systems
• Storing and retrieving enterprise data for business systems
• Performing computations for scientific and engineering application systems

Question 5: Which kind of database corresponds to ‘graph’? Select one:

• Network
• Relational
• Hierarchical
• Object-oriented

Question 6: What kind of database corresponds to ‘table’? Select one:

• Network
• Relational
• Hierarchical
• Object-oriented

Question 7: Which of the following describes the capability to change the physical schema of a database without having to rewrite application programs? Select one:

• Logical data independence
• Physical data dependence
• Physical data independence
• Physical schema refinement

Question 8: Logical data independence allows modifications of what without rewriting application programs? Select one:

• User view
• Table contents
• Logical schema
• Physical schema

Question 9: What is a database view? Select one:

• a meta table
• a virtual table
• a copy of a table
• a pointer to a table

Question 10: Indices are useful for searching a database because they decrease which of the following? Select one:

• query complexity
• search time for certain types of queries
• the amount of storage used in searching a database
• the design effort needed for developing the database search algorithms

Question 11: A link can be established between two tables by the use of what kind of key? Select one:

• foreign
• hash
• national
• primary

Question 12: IMS is an example of a database system that implemented which of the following models? Select one:

• Hierarchical
• Network
• Relational
• Theoretical

Question 13: “User requirements” corresponds to which of the following database terms? Select one:

• Internal view
• External view
• Network schema
• Data management language

Question 14: Which of the following statements describes the role of an E-R diagram in the development of a relational database? Select one:

• An E-R diagram is transformed into the database design.
• An E-R diagram is transformed into the internal database.
• An E-R diagram is transformed into the physical database.
• An E-R diagram is used to represent the database requirements.

Question 15: Which of the following can we use to indicate whether an entity instance is mandatory? Select one:

• Cardinality
• Optionality
• Disjointedness
• Referential integrity

Question 16: You have an application domain that consists of Cities, Towns, and Neighborhoods. A City has a name, zip code, state, and a country. A Town has a name, zip code, state, and country. A Neighborhood has a name, coordinate, and population. Using a relational model, what are Students, Courses, and Sections called? Select one:

• Attributes
• Constraints
• Entities
• Relations

Question 17: Which is the correct expression to find all students registered for CS403? Select one:

• σcourse_id=”CS403″ (course)
• σdescription=”CS403″ (course)
• σcourse_id = “CS403” (registration)
• σdescription=”CS403″ (registration)

Question 18: What is relational algebra? Select one:

• The mathematical basis for SQL
• A language used to store data in a database
• The translation of a query by an SQL compiler
• An informal way to describe how a database works

Question 19: Which of the following is this operation an example of?

Student ⋈ _{student.sid = course.sid} Course Select one:

• An equijoin
• A hash join
• A theta join
• Aa natural join

Question 20: Which of the following is Student ⨯ Courses an example of? Select one:

• A theta join
• An inner join
• A natural join
• A cartesian product

Question 21: In what normal form is the relation in the figure? Select one:

• First normal form
• Second normal form
• Third normal form
• Boyce-Codd normal form

Question 22: Which of the following describes a relation is in first normal form (1NF)? Select one:

• It has no identical rows
• It has no repeating groups
• It has no partial functional dependencies
• It has no transitive functional dependencies

Question 23: Consider the following database table:

Part No.	Description	Cust ID	Name	Quantity Ordered
2361	Pens	7810	J. Smith	22
2371	Paper Clips	7810	J. Smith	1000
2914	Pens	7914	K. Jones	900

If we were to delete the third row, all information about customer 7914 would be lost. Which of the following is this an example of? Select one:

• A deletion anomaly
• An update anomaly
• An insertion anomaly
• A modification anomaly

Question 24: Consider the following database table:

Part No.	Description	Cust ID	Name	Quantity Ordered
2361	Pens	7810	J. Smith	22
2371	Paper Clips	7810	J. Smith	1000
2914	Pens	7914	K. Jones	900

If J. Smith changes her last name to Klein, we would have to update multiple rows in the table. Which of the following is this an example of? Select one:

• A hash anomaly
• A deletion anomaly
• An update anomaly
• An insertion anomaly

Question 25: Which of the following is a data definition command? Select one:

• Insert
• Select
• Update
• Create table

Question 26: If we have the following table:

customer (custNo, name, street, city, state, zip, telephone, creditLimit)

What will this update command do?

update customer
set creditLimit = creditLimit * 1.05
where state = ‘MA’

Select one:

• Insert a new record into the table for each MA customer
• Set the credit limit of all MA customers to credit limit * 1.05
• Set the credit limit of all MA customers to credit limit / 1.05
• Change state to MA where credit limit was increased by 5%

Question 27: Which of the following is true about a select statement? Select one:

• It can only be used by itself.
• It can be included as part of an insert only.
• It can be included as part of an update but not as part of a delete.
• It can be included as part of an update, delete, or insert statement.

Question 28: What is the select statement used to do? Select one:

• Query a table
• Create a new table
• Insert data into a table
• Delete rows from a table

Question 29: What would the following query produce for results?

select count (*)
from customer
where credit_limit > 500

Select one:

• A listing of all customers
• A listing of all customers with a credit limit greater than 500
• A count of all customers
• A count of all customers with a credit limit greater than 500

Question 30: Which of the following describes the order by clause? Select one:

• It is always the first part of an SQL select statement
• It sorts the entire table by ordering the values of a column(s)
• It sorts the result set from a query by ordering column values
• It uses descending when the order for sorting is not specified

Question 31: You are given this table:

Registration
SID	Course ID	Sem ID	Instructor	Grade
282712	ENGL210	201701	H. Zacny	B+
362112	CS101	201701	K. Ross	C
652123	CS403	201701	K. Ross	A
362112	CS403	201701	K. Smith	C+
282712	BIO101	201601	I. Olsen	C

What will the result of the following query be?

select sid, count (*)
from registration
group by sid

Select one:

• The entire table sorted by sid
• No results due to an error
• 282712 2

362112 2

652123 1

• 282712 1

362112 1

652123 1

Question 32: Which type of join returns values from either table regardless of whether there is a matching value in the other table? Select one:

• Full join
• Left join
• Half join
• Empty join

Question 33: You are given the following tables:

Student
SID	Lname	Fname	Major
986223	Smith	Janet	Chemistry
362112	Williams	Henry	Computer Science
282712	Jones	John	English Literature

Registration
SID	Course ID	Sem ID	Instructor	Grade
282712	ENGL210	201701	H. Zacny	B+
362112	CS101	201701	K. Ross	C

What would the following SQL Select statement produce for output?

select Lname, Course ID, grade
from student 
left join registration
on student.sid = registration.sid

Select one:

• Williams CS101
• Williams CS101 C

Jones ENGL210 B+

• Smith null null

Williams CS101 C

Jones ENGL210

• No output due to a syntax error

Question 34: Which of the following code segments best describes information? Select one:

• Cost = 10
• Int X;

X = 10

• int Dollars = 10;

Print Dollars

• Int Dollars;

Dollars = 10;

Cost = Dollars

Question 35: Which of the following are generic database architectures? Select one:

• Distributed and leased
• Centralized and leased
• Centralized and distributed
• Centralized and networked

Question 36: What is data that describes data called? Select one:

• Metadata
• Abstract data
• Semantic data
• Referential data

Question 37: Which level of the three-level database architecture deals with how the user sees data? Select one:

• Conceptual
• External
• Individual
• Internal

Question 38: What are rules that are valid for information in a database called? Select one:

• constructs
• constraints
• foreign keys
• primary keys

Question 39: Which of the following statements best describes object-relational databases? Select one:

• They have little vendor support
• They integrate multiple paradigms
• They cannot be easily implemented
• They integrate incompatible paradigms

Question 40: Which of the following is an example of a use of an E-R diagram? Select one:

• A model of a database
• A design of a database
• A diagram of a database
• A specification of database requirements

Question 41: Which of the following is true of the ER diagram in the figure below? Select one:

• An employee can work for many departments
• An employee can work for one department and a department can only have one employee
• An employee can work for one department and a department can have one or more employees
• An employee can work for one department only and a department does not have to have employees

Question 42: Which of the following does this figure represent? Select one:

• Imaging entity
• Associative entity
• Binary relationship
• Ternary relationship

Question 43: In relational algebra, how would one select just the name from the student relation? Select one:

• Π (Student)
• Π (Course)
• ΠName (Student)
• σname (Student)

Question 44: A relation is considered to be in Boyce-Codd normal form if and only if which of the following applies? Select one:

• It is in fourth normal form
• There are transitive dependencies
• Every determinant is a candidate key
• There are some partial functional dependencies

Question 45: What would this delete operation do?

delete from course
where credits = 3

Select one:

• Add a new row to the course table
• Delete all records in the course table
• Delete three credit courses from the course table
• Delete all records except those with three credits from the course table

Question 46: What would this statement produce for output?

select lname, fname
from customer
where state like ‘%M’

Select one:

• Customers’ last and first names who live in a state that ends with an M
• Customers’ last and first names who live in a state that begins with an M
• a list of all customers in the table who live in a state that ends with an M
• A list of all customers in the table who live in a state that begins with an M

Question 47: Which of the following is the where clause most useful for? Select one:

• Only joining tables
• Choosing the correct table
• Choosing the correct expression to display
• Choosing only rows that fit a certain criterion

Question 48: What will the following Select statement produce for output?

select cid, lname, fname
from customer
where credit_limit between 500 and 1000

Select one:

• A list of all customer records with credit limit > 500 and < 1000
• A list of all customer records with credit limit > =500 and < =1000
• A list of (cid, lname, fname) where credit limit >500 and <1000
• A list of (cid, lname, fname) where credit limit > =500 and < = 1000

Question 49: What does an inner join do? Select one:

• Return all rows in all tables
• Return only those rows with a matching row in the corresponding table
• Return all rows in the right table regardless of whether there is a match in the left table
• Return all rows in the left or right table regardless of whether there is a match in the corresponding table

Question 50: You are given the following tables:

Course
Course ID	Description	Credits
CS101	Computer Science I	3
CS201	Elementary Data Structures	3
ENGL210	Technical Writing	3

Registration
SID	Course ID	Sem ID	Instructor	Grade
282712	ENGL210	201701	H. Zacny	B+
362112	CS101	201701	K. Ross	C
652123	CS403	201603	K. Ross	A

What would the following SQL Select statement produce for output?

select course. Description, registration.SID, registration. grade
from registration
full join course
on registration. courseID = course. courseID

Select one:

• Technical Writing 28212 B+

• Technical Writing 28212 B+

Computer Science I 362112 C

Null 652123 A

• Technical Writing 28212 B+

Computer Science I 362112 C

Elementary Data Structures null null

• Technical Writing 28212 B+

Computer Science I 362112 C

Null 652123 A

Elementary Data Structures null null

Question 51: Which of the following selections best describes information? Select one:

• Letters
• Data plus semantics
• Letters that spell a word
• A number and its data type

Question 52: What is one of the disadvantages of file processing systems? Select one:

• Low data quality
• Limited data sharing
• Short development time
• Program-data independence

Question 53: Which of the following sets of terms describes the data in a database? Select one:

• integrated and shared
• redundant and accurate
• functional and redundant
• transactional and unconstrained

Question 54: One function of a DBMS is provision of which of the following? Select one:

• Data security
• Data accuracy
• Data redundancy
• Data dependence

Question 55: What is used in DBMSes to make sure that data are accurate and consistent? Select one:

• Primary keying
• Check constraints
• Referential integrity
• Field-level validations

Question 56: In this figure, what is TextBook an example of? Select one:

• Primary key
• Composite key
• Multivalued attribute
• Single-valued attribute

Question 57: What kind of relationship is this figure an example of? Select one:

• Unary
• One to all
• One to one
• One to many

Question 58: What constraint type does the following constraint belong to?

“Every table must have a primary key, of which no part can be null.”

Select one:

• Entity integrity
• Domain integrity
• Semantic integrity
• Referential integrity

Question 59: If we had another relation, staff, which was union compatible with faculty, what would the following expression return for a result?

Π_empno (Staff ⋃ Instructor)

Select one:

• The employee number of every staff employee and every instructor
• Every employee who is either a member of the staff or an instructor
• All tuples of the instructor relation along with all tuples of the staff relation
• The employee number of all rows in the staff and in the instructor relations

Question 60: What is the highest normal form that all relations in the diagram are in?

Select one:

• First normal form
• Third normal form
• Fourth normal form
• Boyce-Codd normal form

Question 61: What is the delete statement used to do? Select one:

• Delete table rows that match a condition
• Truncate parts of a table that are too long
• Remove table columns that match a condition
• Insert a mark to indicate that a table is deleted

Question 62: Which of the following is a SQL aggregate function? Select one:

• average
• avg
• mean
• sqrt

Question 63: What is the SQL ‘group by’ statement used to do? Select one:

• Sort the results in group order
• List the rows ordered by group
• List a single row for each group
• Insert new records into the table

Question 64: Which of the following describes a DBMS? Select one:

• A part of a database
• A database application
• An interface between applications
• An interface between a database and users of the database

Question 65: Which of the following are the most widely-used types of databases today? Select one:

• Network
• Relational
• Hierarchical
• Object-oriented

Question 66: Which view in the three-level database architecture offers a formal description of the data with no concern for how it will be stored? Select one:

• Conceptual
• Data
• External
• Internal

Question 67: What is commonly used to represent a relation? Select one:

• an index
• a schema
• a table
• a view

Question 68: If you were a database consultant tasked with recommending a data model for a company that gathers data from the internet to identify information on trends in consumer behavior, which type of database would you recommend? Select one:

• Hierarchical
• NoSQL
• Object
• Relational

Question 69: “Design” corresponds to which of the following database terms? Select one:

• Internal view
• External view
• Conceptual schema
• Data management language

Question 70: Which of the following is one of the problems with non-relational databases? Select one:

• Data dependency
• Limited vendor support
• Low speed of operation
• Structural independence

Question 71: In this figure, which of the following is a candidate key?

Select one:

• Name
• License
• SocSec#
• StudentId

Question 72: On an ER diagram, which shape is used to represent an entity? Select one:

• Circle
• Diamond
• Oval
• Rectangle

Question 73: What kind of relationship is this figure an example of? Select one:

• Binary
• Ternary
• Tributary
• Unary

Question 74: Which of the following should we always do when preparing to map an ER diagram to relations? Select one:

• Normalize the ERD until no more normalization can be done
• Check that the DBMS can interpret the constraints in the ERD
• Make sure that we have simplified the ERD as much as possible
• Make sure that our ERD has only one entity and one relationship

Question 75: Which of the following statements about domain constraints is true? Select one:

• They cannot be used in most modern database systems
• They ensure values entered into a table satisfy conditions
• They can only check numeric values for arithmetic relations
• They cannot always be implemented in some SQL implementations

Question 76: When is a relation considered to be in first normal form (1NF)? Select one:

• When there are no dependencies of an attribute on another attribute in the table
• When there are no compound primary keys or partial key that can have a null value
• When there are no partial dependencies or transitive dependencies on a primary key
• When there are no repeating groups of values of an attribute in one or more columns

Question 77: Consider the following database table:

Part No.	Description	Cust ID	Name	Quantity Ordered
2361	Pens	7810	J. Smith	22
2371	Paper Clips	7810	J. Smith	1000
2914	Pens	7914	K. Jones	900

Since the primary key is made up of PartNo and CustID, we cannot insert a new part without adding an associated customer. Which of the following is this an example of? Select one:

• A non-normal form
• A deletion anomaly
• An update anomaly
• An insertion anomaly

Question 78: Which of the following terms describes one attribute (or field) that determines the value of another attribute? Select one:

• Foreign key
• Primary key
• Independent key
• Functional dependency

Question 79: What is the difference between data definition language and data manipulation language? Select one:

• It is used to create tables, views, etc., and data manipulation language is only used for inserts
• It is used for queries and data manipulation language is used for updating and deleting tables only
• It is used to create the files that store tables whereas data manipulation language is used to update data
• It is used to create tables, indexes, etc., whereas data manipulation language is used to query the database

Question 80: Assume that we have a table called student with the following columns:

(sid, fname, lname, major)

What is wrong with this insert command?

insert into student (‘s2234′,’John’,’Smith’,’Chemistry’)

Select one:

• It is missing a left parenthesis
• It is missing a right parenthesis
• It is missing a value before the parenthesis
• There are not enough fields in the statement

Question 81: Which of the following are constraints that can be used with the create table command? Select one:

• references, alias, check
• null, primary key, view of
• primary key, not null, unique
• primary key, default, between

Question 82: What will this SQL statement produce for output?

select distinct lname, fname, dob

from customer

Select one:

• Customer data rows so that there are no duplicates
• Customer rows so that there are no duplicate records
• Customer rows so that there are no duplicate customers
• Customer data rows so that there are no duplicate names

Question 83: What will the following query return for results?

select lname

from customer

where credit_limit in (1000,2000,3000)

Select one:

• All last names and credit limits from 1000 to 2000, and 2000 to 3000
• The last name of all customers with a credit limit of 1000, 2000, or 3000
• All last names and credit limits where the credit limit is 1000, 2000, 3000
• The last name of all customers with a credit from 1000 to 2000, and 2000 to 3000

Question 84: You are given the following tables:

Course
Course ID	Description	Credits
CS101	Computer Science I	3
CS201	Elementary Data Structures	3
ENGL210	Technical Writing	3

Registration
SID	Course ID	Sem ID	Instructor	Grade
282712	ENGL210	201701	H. Zacny	B+
362112	CS101	201701	K. Ross	C

What would the following SQL Select statement produce for output?

select course. description, registration.SID, registration. grade

from registration

right join course

on registration. courseID = course. courseID

Select one:

• Computer Science I 362112 C
• Computer Science I 362112 C

Technical Writing 28212 B+

• Computer Science I 362112 C

Elementary Data Structures null null

Technical Writing 28212 B+

• No results due to syntax error

Question 85: Which kind of database corresponds to ‘class’? Select one:

• Network
• Relational
• Hierarchical
• Object-oriented

Question 86: “User interface” corresponds to which of the following database terms? Select one:

• Subschema
• External view
• Network schema
• Data management language

Question 87: A non-relational data model based on binary trees is which of the following models? Select one:

• Entity
• Hierarchical
• Network
• Object

Question 88: Which of the following does referential integrity ensure? Select one:

• A field is not duplicated in the table
• Two fields are related to one another
• Field values are consistent in the table
• There are no repeating groups in the table

Question 89: What would the following operation produce for output?

πdescription, name ((course ⟖course. courseid = registration. courseid registration) ⋈sid = student.sid student)

Select one:

• All course descriptions and names of all students
• Registered students and all the course descriptions
• All student names and all courses that are registered
• Registered students and descriptions of their courses

Question 90: In SQL, the join statement is most commonly used to do which of the following? Select one:

• Join two or more tables based upon related fields
• Join two or more tables based on related column fields
• Join two or more columns together based on common names
• Join two or more rows together based on related column fields

Introduction to Introduction to Modern Database Systems

Modern database systems are essential for managing and organizing data efficiently in today’s data-driven world. These systems have evolved significantly from early file-based storage methods to sophisticated, scalable solutions that support complex applications and large-scale data management. Here’s an introduction to key concepts and types of modern database systems:

1. Database Models

• Relational Databases (RDBMS):
  • Structure: Data is organized into tables (relations) with rows and columns. Each table represents an entity, and relationships between tables are defined using foreign keys.
  • Examples: MySQL, PostgreSQL, Oracle Database, Microsoft SQL Server.
  • Query Language: SQL (Structured Query Language) is used for querying and managing data.
  • Advantages: Strong consistency, data integrity, and support for complex queries.
• NoSQL Databases:
  • Types:
    • Document Stores: Store data as documents (e.g., JSON or BSON). Examples: MongoDB, CouchDB.
    • Key-Value Stores: Store data as key-value pairs. Examples: Redis, DynamoDB.
    • Column-Family Stores: Store data in columns rather than rows, optimized for read and write operations. Examples: Apache Cassandra, HBase.
    • Graph Databases: Focus on relationships and connections between data. Examples: Neo4j, ArangoDB.
  • Advantages: Flexibility in schema design, scalability, and performance for specific use cases like real-time data and unstructured data.

2. Database Architecture

• Single-Tier Architecture:
  • All database components (e.g., data storage, application logic) are in one layer. Suitable for small applications but not scalable for large systems.
• Two-Tier Architecture:
  • The database and the application are separated into client and server layers. The client interacts directly with the database server.
• Three-Tier Architecture:
  • Involves three layers: presentation (user interface), application logic (business rules), and data storage (database). This architecture enhances scalability and maintainability.

3. Database Management System (DBMS) Functions

• Data Storage: Efficiently storing data on disk or in-memory.
• Data Retrieval: Providing mechanisms for querying and accessing data quickly.
• Transaction Management: Ensuring data integrity and consistency through transactions (ACID properties: Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability).
• Concurrency Control: Managing simultaneous access to data by multiple users.
• Backup and Recovery: Protecting data against loss and enabling recovery in case of failures.
• Security: Managing access control, authentication, and authorization to protect data from unauthorized access.

4. Scalability and Performance

• Vertical Scaling: Adding more resources (CPU, RAM) to a single server to handle increased load.
• Horizontal Scaling: Adding more servers to distribute the load and handle larger volumes of data. Often used in NoSQL databases and cloud-based systems.

5. Cloud Databases

• Managed Databases: Cloud providers offer managed database services (e.g., Amazon RDS, Google Cloud SQL) that handle maintenance tasks such as backups, updates, and scaling.
• Serverless Databases: Provide automatic scaling and resource management without requiring explicit server management (e.g., Amazon Aurora Serverless).

6. Big Data and Analytics

• Data Warehouses: Specialized databases designed for analytical processing and large-scale querying (e.g., Amazon Redshift, Google BigQuery).
• Data Lakes: Storage repositories that hold vast amounts of raw data in its native format until it is needed (e.g., AWS S3, Azure Data Lake).

7. Emerging Trends

• Machine Learning Integration: Databases incorporating machine learning for predictive analytics and automation.
• Multi-Model Databases: Support multiple data models (e.g., relational, document, graph) within the same database system (e.g., ArangoDB, OrientDB).

Modern database systems are integral to the operation of many applications, from transactional systems in businesses to real-time analytics platforms. Understanding their architecture, capabilities, and use cases is crucial for selecting the right database system for specific needs.

CS402: Computer Communications and Networks Exam Quiz Answers

Question 1: Distributed email was invented in the early 1970s. Before that, which of the following happened?

• Tim Berners-Lee invented the World Wide Web
• Reports by Paul Baran Outlining packet networks were released
• GOPHER was released by researchers at the University of Minnesota
• Marc Andreessen and Eric Bina developed and introduced the Mosaic web browser

Question 2: Would you use a distributed system or a network to allow several computers in your organization to use the same printer? Why?

• A network, because networks are the only way to interconnect different types of hardware
• A network, because users in the organization need to be exposed to all the actual machines, including the printers
• A distributed system, because all printers must operate on top of the middleware that is present in distributed systems
• A distributed system, because that is the best way to prevent end-users from having to deal with the complexities of networks

Question 3: Which of the following statements about the physical layer is true?

• It uses the port number to deliver traffic
• It changes the value of a bit being transmitted due to electromagnetic interference
• It specifies the shared protocols and interface methods used by hosts in a communications network
• It provides the mechanism for opening, closing, and managing a session between end-user application processes

Question 4: Which of the following best describes a Network Request for Comments (RFC)?

• A document published by the IEEE to define protocols such as 802.3/Ethernet
• A document published by vendors to describe the network capabilities of their devices
• A document published by Cisco that is used to develop network protocols using their devices
• A document published by the IETF that defines new networking standards and shares technical information

Question 5: You open a command prompt window on your Windows PC and execute the two commands in bold, which give these two responses from your computer:

  c:\Users\saylor_000> ipconfig
Connection-specific DNS suffix: home
Link–local Ipv6 address………..fe08::5d:45da:b569:cba0%10
Ipv4 Address………………….192.168.1.5
Subnet Mask…………………..255.255.255.0
Default Gateway……………….192.168.1.1
c:\Users\saylor_000> arp -a
Internet Address    Physical Address Type
192.168.1.1        16–1b-eb-76–42–9b    dynamic
192.168.1.7        7c–2b–33–6a–42–55    dynamic
255.255.255.255    ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff    static
 

You follow that by issuing the following command:
c:\Users\saylor_000> ping 172.217.10.238

In response, which of the following will the system issue?

• A DNS message requesting the common name for 172.217.10.238
• A DHCP message with an L3 destination address of 172.217.10.238
• An ARP message requesting the physical address of 172.217.10.238
• An ICMP message with an L2 destination address of 16-1b-eb-76-42-9b

Question 6: Which of the following is one of the main differences between OSPF and RIP?

• OSPF sends update packets every 30 seconds, while RIP only sends update packets when a topology change is detected
• OSPF is slower to converge since it has a hop count limit of 100, while RIP is much faster since its hop count limit is only 50
• RIP solves the count-to-infinity problem using a simple Split Horizon algorithm, while OSPF uses Split Horizon with Poison Reverse
• An OSPF router floods updates through all the network, while a RIP router only exchanges updates with connected routers

Question 7: Host H1 sends a packet to Router R1. The routing table in Router R1 sends the packet to Router R2, which is directly connected to Host H1. Which of the following ICMP messages could Router R1 send to H1 to make the system more effective?

• Type 5, Redirect Message
• Type 9, Router Advertisement
• Type 10, Router Solicitation
• Type 15, Information Request

Question 8: A channel with a bit rate of 8 Kbps and a one-way propagation delay of 20 msec is using a go-back-n sliding window protocol with 40-bit frames. What is the send window size (buffer) needed to attain a 100% utilization in an error free environment?

• 40 bits
• 160 bits
• 320 bits
• 640 bits

Question 9: Suppose you have the following characters: A is 01000001, B is 11110000, Flag is 00111100, and Esc is 11110000. You want to transmit the sequence A Esc Flag B. What would the actual bit sequence that you would transmit be if you use the character count technique?

• 00000100 01000001 11110000 00111100 11110000
• 00111100 01000001 11110000 00111100 11110000 00111100
• 11110000 01000001 11110000 00111100 11110000 11110000
• 00111100 01000001 11110000 11110000 11110000 00111100 11110000 00111100

Question 10: What is the main difference between CSMA and CSMA/CD?

• CSMA waits to receive a token before sending data, while CSMA/CD sends data as soon as no collision has been detected.
• CSMA sends data as soon as the media is free, while CSMA/CD will send a token to the destination host in order to preserve the media
• With CSMA, a station will always finish transmitting all of its data, while CSMA/CD stops as soon as collision is detected and retransmits at a random time
• CSMA will start a random timer before retransmission after a collision, while CSMA/CD will retract and start monitoring the media until it becomes available again

Question 11: Three computers are connected to an L2 switch and a repeater in a VLAN-unaware network, as shown in this image. PC A attaches to port 1 of the switch and has a MAC address of aa-ab-ac-11-12-13. PC B attaches to port 2 of the switch and has a MAC address of bb-bc-bd-11-12-13. PC C attaches to port 4 of the repeater and has a MAC address of cc-cd-ce-11-12-13. PC D attaches to port 5 of the repeater and has MAC address dd-de-da-11-12-13.

The switch has this Forwarding Database:

Address	Port
aa-ab-ac-11-12-13 cc-cd-ce-11-12-13	1 3

PC A sends a frame with a destination MAC address of bb-bc-bd-11-12-13. What will happen in this situation?

• The frame floods ports 2 and 3 in the switch and ports 4 and 5 of the repeater
• The switch sends ARP for MAC bb-bc-bd-11-12-13 before forwarding the frame.
• The switch drops frame, as there is no entry in the FDB for MAC bb-bc-bd-11-12-12
• The switch saves the frame in a buffer until an entry for that address appears in the FDB

Question 12: Use this figure for reference. It indicates the path cost, “PC”, for each LAN.

After the STP stabilizes, which of the following will be selected as the root bridge?

• Bridge 1
• Bridge 2
• Bridge 3
• Bridge 4

Question 13: Two transmission methods for wireless systems are the Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) and the Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS). For which of the following you would recommend using DSSS?

• For an environment that is entirely indoors
• When cost is a factor, since DSSS is cheaper
• When short synchronization times are needed
• For an environment with high narrow band noise

Question 14: What protocols are necessary to communicate via VoIP?

• TCP to initiate a call and RTCP to control the transfer of audio and video
• ICMP to ensure that the communication path is present and TCP as the transport for the IP traffic
• RIP to find the path from IP source to destination [and x to do y]
• SIP to initiate a call and RTP to provide end-to-end network transport of audio and video

Question 15: When encrypting data, symmetric encryption is faster and easier to implement. However, key management can become a problem in symmetric encryption systems, since securely getting a new key to both sides can be a challenge. Which of the following might be a way to solve this problem?

• Use a Diffie-Hellman key exchange scheme for the private key
• Use a long period for allowing key changes, to be sure that both parties have ample time
• Switch to asymmetric encryption and use a public key to encrypt and a private key to decrypt
• Increase the length of the encryption and decryption keys in the DES standard from 64-bit to 128-bit

Question 16: You have been asked to install and configure a VPN for a small office that uses a combination of Windows and Linux systems. Which of the following would be your first choice?

• A PPTP-based system
• An L2TP-based system
• An SSTP-based system
• An OpenVPN-based system

Question 17: Establishing a connection to a remote system requires a good, robust solution. In modern networks, RADIUS and TACACS+ provide such solutions. What is one of the main differences between RADIUS and TACACS+?

• RADIUS runs on top of TCP, while TACACS+ runs on top of UDP
• RADIUS does not support protocols like ARA, NetBios, and NASI, while TACACS+ supports all of them
• RADIUS addresses the authentication and authorization issues but lacks accounting, while TACACS+ addresses all of them
• RADIUS encrypts only the password in the access request, while TACACS+ encrypts the whole body of the packet except for the header

Question 18: Two common protocols used to provide router redundancy and achieve high network availability are HSRP and VRRP. For which of the following cases would you decide to use HSRP? 

• When you need to support load balancing
• When your network uses only Cisco routers
• When your network uses multiple router vendors, like Cisco and Juniper
• When you need to save address space and receive only one IP address for your virtual router

Question 19: Which of the following types of cable would be most appropriate for a public network?

• Coaxial
• Plenum
• Optical fiber
• Twisted pair

Question 20: Which layer from the OSI layer model facilitates the creation, sending, and receiving of bits?

• Session
• Transport
• Data link
• Physical

Question 21: Which of the following protocols does FTP run on?

• SIP
• SMTP
• TCP
• UDP

Question 22: What is the basic difference between SMTP and IMAP?

• SMTP is a UDP-based protocol, while IMAP is a TCP-based protocol
• SMTP provides support for images in messages, while IMAP is a text-based protocol
• SMTP is a network management protocol, while IMAP is used to send and retrieve email messages
• SMTP could be used to send and retrieve emails, while IMAP is only used to retrieve email messages

Question 23: Which of the following is a difference between HTTP and HTML?

• HTTP normally runs on top of UDP, while HTML runs on TCP
• HTTP is the same as HTML, but works on IPv6 instead of IPv4
• HTTP posts and retrieves web pages, while HTML is a language used to define elements of web pages
• HTTP is a scripting language used to display web pages in a browser, while HTML is the protocol used to secure an HTTP connection

Question 24: In which of the following situations would you want to use FTP instead of TFTP?

• When you need to be able to authenticate users
• When you need to use bootstrap protocols such as BOOTP
• When you need to use initialization protocols such as DHCP
• When you need to use a protocol such as ICMP to troubleshoot a network connection

Question 25: In which of the following scenarios would you choose a peer-to-peer network model over a client-server network model?

• In a school network where sensitive information needs to be protected
• In a content delivery organization that is expected to grow rapidly in the coming months
• In an engineering firm where, multiple users will share a central computer running company-specific software
• In a bank environment with a great amount of users that will be accessing the network via their personal devices

Question 26: Which of the following methods does SSH use to securely transmit data?

• By sending data through an encrypted TLS tunnel
• Authenticating end users and encrypting the data sent between them
• Using public/private asymmetric key pairs to encrypt the whole connection
• Using a single “Well-Known Key” that is paired with all data sent through the network

Question 27: As a network engineer, you need to write a simple socket program. Which of the following parameters will you need to specify when creating a socket?

• Socket type and address format
• Socket address and socket family
• Socket message and socket header
• Socket stream and datagram socket

Question 28: As compared to TCP, which of the following is true of UDP?

• UDP is more reliable
• UDP supports flow control
• UDP has a higher overhead
• UDP data transmission is more efficient

Question 29: Which of the following is present in a TCP header but not a UDP header?

• Checksum
• Source Port
• Destination Port
• Sequence number

Question 30: Each endpoint of a connection, or socket, contains which of the following pairs of information?

• IP Address and port number
• Sequence number and option type
• MAC address and time-to-live number
• Protocol number and packet ID number

Question 31: Which of the following best describes the Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP)?

• Reliable and message-oriented
• Reliable and character-oriented
• Unreliable and message-oriented
• Unreliable and character-oriented

Question 32: Why does a TCP connection release use a four-way handshake protocol?

• It uses an asymmetric release protocol
• It allows both sides to release independently
• It is the only way to avoid deadlock situations
• It avoids the delays typical to other forms of release

Question 33: A local host has established a TCP connection to a remote host. The local host has 4096 B of data that is ready to send to the remote host. It then receives a segment from the remote host with 2048 B of data and the following parameters in the header: Seq=2048, ACK = 2048, W = 2048. When the local host sends the new segment, which of the following parameters will the header contain?

• Seq = 2048, ACK = 2048, W = 2048, and 2048 B of data
• Seq = 2048, ACK = 4097, W = 2048, and 2048 B of data
• Seq = 4096, ACK = 2048, W = 4096, and 4096 B of data
• Seq = 4096, ACK = 4096, W = 4096, and 4096 B of data

Question 34: IPv6 is more effective than IPv4 due in part to its increased flexibility. Which of the following allows IPv6 to provide more flexibility than IPv4?

• Limited the mix of data streams
• Introduced a fixed-size header with optional extension headers
• Increased the TTL field to allow packets longer travel distances
• Eliminated the support for QoS at an IP level, instead relying on TCP

Question 35: A router receives a packet with a destination IP address of 192.24.10.4 and is using this routing table. What will happen with the packet?

Address	Mask	Output Port
192.24.0.0	255.255.248.0	1
192.24.16.0	255.255.240.0	2
192.24.8.0	255.255.252.0	3
Default		4

• It will be sent to output port 1
• It will be sent to output port 2
• It will be sent to output port 3
• It will be sent to default port 4

Question 36: A school district needs approximately 2,000 IP addresses. A group of addresses starting with 194.24.0.0 is available. You have been assigned the task of giving the school district a number of IP addresses that is as close to 2,000 as possible using CIDR. Which of the following subnets would you assign to the school district to accomplish this?

• 194.24.0.0/16
• 194.24.0.0/21
• 192.24.0.0/24
• 218.238.0.1

Question 37: Which of the following was an early predecessor to the Internet, and arguably where most of the development for today’s internet took place?

• ARPANET
• GOPHER
• LAN
• OSPF

Question 38: Which of the following layers builds on the service provided by the physical layer that lies beneath it?

• Data link layer
• Network layer
• Transport layer
• Physical layer

Question 39: In which of the following situations might you want to consult an RFC?

• To troubleshoot the reason why a router suddenly stops forwarding data
• When your team is designing the network that a community college will use
• To understand how an OSPF router recalculates routes quickly with topology changes
• When you need to choose between two different types of routers for your existing home network

Question 40: A multicast group stops receiving a multicast stream even though there are still members of that multicast group present in the network. Which of the following might be a possible cause for this problem?

• The TTL field became too high
• There was an RPF check failure
• An IGMP Graft message was sent
• The PIM protocol changed from Dense to Sparse

Question 41: A host with an IP address 192.168.10.3/24 needs to send a packet to a remote host with address 192.168.20.40. No default gateway has been configured for the host, but packets are still reaching the remote host. Why might this be the case?

• The host first sends an ICMP Router discovery message
• The gateway responsible for the network is configured as a proxy ARP
• The host issues an ARP request sent to the broadcast Ethernet address
• The sending and destination hosts have both been configured with a mask of 255.255.0.0

Question 42: A channel has a bit rate of 4 kbps and a one-way propagation delay of 20 msec. You are using a stop-and-wait protocol. For what range of frame sizes will you observe at least 50% efficiency?

• 1 to 19 bits
• 20 or more bits
• 80 or more bits
• 160 or more bits

Question 43: 802.16, also known as Wi-Max, has four classes of service. Which of them is the most appropriate to send uncompressed video?

• Best effort
• Constant bit rate
• Real-time variable bit rate
• Non-real-time variable bit rate

Question 44: The Diffie-Hellman algorithm allows hosts to dynamically share secret keys using a public network. Suppose that, before the key exchange, hosts H1 and H2 publicly agree that the values of P is 11 and the value of G is 4. In addition, host H1 has a private secret key of 3, while host H2 has a private secret key of 6. With this information, a “secret” key can be exchanged between hosts H1 and H2. What will the secret key be that is exchanged by H1 and H2 to encrypt and decrypt data as in a symmetric system?

• 4
• 9
• 11
• 64

Question 45: Although cloud computing has many advantages, it is not always the best approach. What would be a typical disadvantage of a cloud computing environment?

• It is harder to maintain
• It typically has slower performance
• It is dependent on devices and their locations
• It can be hard to implement elastically and at scale

Question 46: Which of the following is true about the circuit switching method?

• It is more resilient than other methods in the event of a router failure
• Packets arrive out of order and must be rearranged at the destination
• Each packet has a header with full address of destination and source hosts
• The route from source to destination is determined when a connection is established

Question 47: Which layer of the Internet Protocol describes the protocols for email and web file access?

• Presentation
• Network
• Transport
• Session

Question 48: A user has received an SIP Invite message with this SDP Payload:

CSeq: 1 INVITE
Max–Forwards: 70
Contact: <sip: 9781118484@192.168.215.66:34522>
User–Agent: snom190/3.60s
Allow: INVITE, ACK, CANCEL, BYE, REFER, OPTIONS, NOTIFY, SUBSCRIBE,

    PRACK, MESSAGE, INFO
Session–Expires: 3600
Content–Type: application/sdp
Content–Length: 275
v=0
o=root 1747056259 1747056259 IN IP4 192.168.215.66
s=call
c=IN IP4 192.168.215.66
t=0 0
m=audio 49756 RTP/AVP 2 4 0 101
a=rtpmap:2

    g726-32/8000
Given this payload, which of the following can we say about this request?

• The call is encrypted with a the key g726-32
• It is for a video call that will take place using port 8000
• It is for an audio call that will take place using port 49756
• The connection uses UDP as its main transport mechanism

Question 49: Which of the following is a difference between SSH and TLS?

• TLS runs on top of UDP, while SSH runs on TCP
• TLS uses a peer-to-peer model, while SSH uses a client-server architecture
• SSH provides for secure data transmission, while TLS provides additional encryption on top of SSH
• SSH provides for secure data transmission, while TLS ensures the integrity and privacy of the message

Question 50: Which of the following characteristics does the User Design Protocol (UDP) have?

• It is connectionless
• It supports user authentication
• It has an unlimited message size
• It is more reliable than other protocols

Question 51: When a router receives a packet, which of the following does it do?

• Check the digital signature
• Translate the network address
• Store the state information about the packet
• Forward the data packets between networks

Question 52: As the network administrator for a medical office, you have decided to put all of the doctors’ machines in subnet 171.157.34.122/28. Which of the following first-available addresses would you need to configure your DHCP server to use for the doctors’ subnet?

• 171.157.34.112
• 171.157.34.113
• 171.157.34.126
• 171.157.34.127

Question 53: Which of the following is a digital cable television system an example of?

• A LAN
• A WAN
• A MAN
• A home networks

Question 54: Which of the following is one of the main differences between RIP and BGP?

• RIP is a TCP-based protocol, while BGP runs directly over IP
• RIP is an exterior routing protocol, while BGP is an interior routing protocol
• RIP is based on distance vector routing, while BGP is based on link state routing
• RIP uses a metric based on hop count, while BGP uses a metric based on path information

Question 55: In which of the following scenarios would you want to enable the RSVP protocol?

• When you want your multicast group to run faster
• When you want to implement a “tagging” protocol operating over UDP
• When you want to implement a “reservation” protocol operating over IP
• When you need a protocol similar to a unicast routing protocol but you are using multicast applications

Question 56: An IPTV system is trying to send high-definition uncompressed video at a resolution of 1600 × 1200-pixel resolution, with 8 bits/pixel, at 60 frames/second. What are the bandwidth requirements for such a system?

• 15.36 Mbps
• 230.4 Mbps
• 115.2 Mbps
• 921.6 Mbps

Question 57: As an experiment, you send a simple IP frame composed of IP header and TCP segment, IPaddr1–TCPsegment, through an IPsec encrypted channel. IPaddr1 is the original IP address on that packet. On the other side of the channel, using a tool like Wireshark to capture and analyze packets, you capture the frame IPaddr2–IPsecHdr–Encryped data. Here, IPAddr2 is the IP header of the captured segment that shows a different, readable IP address. IPsecHdr is the correct and expected readable IPsec header. The rest of the packet is encrypted. What conclusion can you draw from this experiment?

• The system is using IPsec ESP mode
• The system is using IPsec Tunnel Mode
• The system is using IPsec Transport Mode
• The system is experiencing data corruption

Question 58: A VPN connection with a remote server in an office is being rejected. While troubleshooting the issue, you go to the Services Table in the Control Panel and see this partial table:

Remote Registry		Disabled
RPC Endpoint Mapper	Running	Automatic
Routing and Remote Access		Disabled
Secondary Logon		Manual
Sensor Service		Manual
Server		Automatic
Shared PC Account Manager		Disabled

What is the most likely cause of the problem?

• Remote Registry is disabled
• Secondary Logon is not running
• Routing and Remote Access is disabled
• Shared PC Account Manager is disabled

Question 59: Which layer in the TCP/IP model is a combination of the Application, Presentation, and Session layer in the OSI reference model?

• Application
• Internet
• Network interface
• Transport

Question 60: Which of the following protocols does IGMP normally run on?

• ICMP
• IP
• TCP
• UDP

Question 61: All the client computers on a network are configured to receive IP addresses from a certain DHCP server. However, clients on Subnet B cannot access clients on Subnet A. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem?

• IPv6 is disabled
• The server option is disabled
• The IP address is not available in the scope of the DHCP
• The IP address for the DNS Server is not available in the scope option

Question 62: Which of the following outlines three attributes of the HTTP protocol?

• Connection-oriented; port 70, retrieves Hypertext messages from a server
• Connectionless; port 80; retrieves resources like HTML documents from a server
• Menu-driven; port 7070; distributes, searches, and retrieves documents over IP networks
• Peer-to-peer; port 636; establishes secure connections between two machines on a network

Question 63: Your company needs to securely transfer a file between two machines in remote locations. Which of the following would you consider to perform this task?

• Telnet
• Trivial FTP (TFTP)
• Simple FTP (SFTP)
• FTP over SSL (FTPS)

Question 64: While you are holding a chat session with a friend, you can see an indication that your friend is typing. Which of the following describes what the SIP agent on your friend’s machine does as part of this process?

• It sends a SIP INFO packet
• It sends a SIP DIAL message
• It sends an RTCP SDES packet
• It sends an IGMP REPORT message

Question 65: SNMP defines certain aspects of packets that are sent from a manager to an agent. Which of the following is one of those aspects?

• The packet formats
• The packet encoding
• The number of packets
• The username associated with packets

Question 66: Which of the following would be a use case for socket programming?

• When you need to allow two processes within a single machine to communicate
• When you need to allow two processes in two machines on the same network to communicate
• When you need to establish a client/server connection between two computers on the same network
• When you need to create a connection between two processes in different computers or within the same computer

Question 67: Which of the following services does SCTP allow in each association?

• Multistream
• Single-homing
• Congestion control
• Head-of-line blocking

Question 68: A TCP system is very congested. Which of the following is most likely to happen when multiple segments are lost?

• After 4 ACKs are received for the same segment, the sending host reverts to the Slow Start algorithm and starts with a window size of 1
• The sending host will wait for RTO timers to expire and resend lost packets as many times as needed to assure that TCP remains reliable
• After 4 ACKs are received for the same segment, the Fast Retransmit rule is applied and the lost packet is sent without waiting for RTO timers to expire
• After 10 ACKs for the same segment are received, the system automatically switches to the ATM transmission protocol, which is much faster than TCP

Question 69: Which of the following describes one of the differences between a distributed system and a computer network?

• A distributed system does not allow machines to share resources to accomplish a given task, while a network does
• A distributed system requires the use of exterior routing protocols to move data between computers, while a network only uses interior routing protocols
• A distributed system is a collection of autonomous computers operating as one, while a network involves users who each work on individual machines
• In a distributed system all messages have to go through a central node, while a network allows machines to send messages to one another independently

Question 70: Which of the following describes a privately-owned within a campus with machines that spread across a few square miles?

• LAN
• MAN
• WAN
• PAN

Question 71: How does the Link State Algorithm work?

• It floods the network with a link state advertisement at regular intervals
• It exchanges a link state advertisement table with its neighbors at regular intervals
• It uses Dijkstra’s algorithm to find the shortest path between two nodes in the network
• It uses a Poison Reverse algorithm to find the best path between two nodes in the network

Question 72: In an MPLS environment, you see that an LSP is not following the shortest path from source to destination. What should you do in this situation?

• Verify that all routers in the environment are MPLS enabled
• Ignore it, because all links can be used in an MPLS-enabled environment
• Make sure that traffic engineering is correctly guaranteeing the required bandwidth
• Restart the label distribution process which failed to select the best route at startup

Question 73: Why is Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) an important protocol?

• It provides for automatic means of address assignment within a network
• It provides for a convenient way of translating from an IPv4 address to an IPv6 address
• Most hosts are attached to a LAN interface that by definition only understands Ethernet addresses
• Address resolution is required to translate unintelligible IP addresses into familiar, user-friendly names

Question 74: Which of the following is a difference between the Ethernet V2 and 802.3 protocols?

• Ethernet V2 has a maximum frame size of 64KB, while the max frame size of 802.3 is 1500B
• Ethernet V2 uses a CSMA access mechanism, while 802.3 uses a CSMA/CD access mechanism
• Ethernet V2 frame format has a “Type” field, while 802.3 uses a frame format with a MAC subheader
• Ethernet V2 contains the CRC field toward the start of the frame, while 802.3 contains the CRC toward the end of the frame

Question 75: Four computers are connected to an L2 switch and a repeater in a VLAN-unaware network, as shown in this image. PC A attaches to port 1 of the switch and has a MAC address of aa-ab-ac-11-12-13. PC B attaches to port 2 of the switch and has a MAC address of bb-bc-bd-11-12-13. PC C attaches to port 4 of the repeater and has a MAC address of cc-cd-ce-11-12-13. PC D attaches to port 5 of the repeater and has MAC address dd-de-da-11-12-13.

The switch has this Forwarding Database:

Address                        Port

aa-ab-ac-11-12-13

cc-cd-ce-11-12-13         

1

3

PC A sends a frame with a destination MAC address of cc-cd-ce-11-12-13. What will happen with the frame?

• It is received by PC C
• It is received PCs B, C, and D
• It is received by PCs C and D
• It is dropped by the switch, since PC C is not directly connected

Question 76: In this figure, all switches are VLAN-aware, and have a native VLAN ID for each port as shown. In addition, each port has been statically configured to the indicated VLANs. The link between SW1 Port 2 and SW2 Port 3 is 802.1Q, and is a trunk. The link between SW1 Port 6 and SW3 Port 7 is not a trunk. The MAC rectangles represent hosts with the indicated MAC address. These MAC addresses have been abbreviated for convenience. Consider the FDB on all switches to be empty at the beginning of the situation presented.

In this situation, a “clear” frame (with no VLAN ID) comes into port 1 of SW1 with a destination of MAC 01. What will happen with the frame?

• It will be dropped by SW1
• It will reach both SW2 and SW3, but both will drop it
• It will reach both SW2 and SW3, but go out of port 8 on SW3
• It will reach both SW2 and SW3, but go out of ports 4 and 5 on SW2

Question 77: What is the difference between the token ring and token bus protocols?

• Token ring is an actual ring with a circulating token, while token bus is a virtual ring where the token circulates on a bus
• Token ring uses a transmission timer to transmit once it gets the token, while token bus transmits as soon as the token is available
• Hosts with data in a token ring must wait for the token to arrive before transmission, while hosts with data in a token bus can transmit at any time
• A host in a token ring does not monitor the media since access is based only on having the token available, while a host in token bus monitors the media before sending data

Question 78: Encrypting a message is not useful if you can’t verify that the message gets to the correct recipient. Typically, digital signatures are used to solve this problem. How are digital signatures created?

• By exchanging the roles of the Authentication field (AH) and the Encapsulating Security Header (ESP) field in the IPsec header
• By using a tunnel-mode algorithm where the sender encrypts a signature and sends it through a tunnel previously made with the receiver
• By the sender encrypting a signature using a private key and the receiver using a public key to decrypt the signature to verify authenticity of the sender
• By the sender encrypting a signature using a private key and the receiver using the same private key to decrypt the signature to verify authenticity of sender

Question 79: Your attempt to establish an RDP connection to a remote computer keeps failing. You have verified that you have appropriate admin credentials, and that the remote computer is configured to allow users to connect remotely. Which of the following could be a cause of this issue?

• Another program is using port 3389
• IKE services are disabled on the remote system
• Shared PC Account Manager is disabled in the remote system
• There is a mismatch in the Security Associations for the connection

Question 80: Two common cloud computing platforms are Amazon’s AWS and Microsoft’s Azure. What is one of the main differences between the two?

• AWS uses SQL databases like MYSQL, while Azure uses a relational database like RDS
• AWS is based on Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2), while Azure is based on virtual machines
• AWS uses the more efficient block storage, while Azure uses object storage through a web interface
• AWS uses a network platform based on virtual networks, while Azure is based on a virtual private cloud

Question 81: Which of the following is true about the datagram method of packet switching?

• Each packet’s path is chosen randomly between a limited set of paths
• Each packet has a header with full address of destination and source hosts
• A path must be established from source to destination before data starts flowing
• Even though a path is not established ahead of time, each packet must follow the exact same path

Question 82: Which of the following statements about packets in a reliable connectionless service is true?

• They cannot be lost
• They can be modified
• They can be duplicated
• They can suffer transmission errors

Question 83: This is a segment of a DNS database for cs.upr.pr.

cs.upr.pr.

cs.upr.pr.

86400

86000

IN

IN

TXT

MX

free access

1 correo.cs.uprm.pr

rapi.cs.upr.pr.

rapi.cs.upr.pr.

rapi.cs.upr.pr.

www.uprm.pr.   

86000 IN

86000 IN    

86400

86400

HINFO    

A

IN

IN

A

CNAME         

RedHat Unix

129.105.77.32

192.162.209.44

colegio.cs. uprc

Tiger

Tarazan

Printer

IN

IN

IN

IN

IN

IN

IN

IN

A

HINFO

MX

A

HINFO

MX

A

HINFO

129.105.80.101

RedHat Unix

1 correro

129.105.50.44

Sun Unix

1 Correro

192.162.50.144

Laserjet

According to the table, what network class is Tarzan on?

• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D

Question 84: Which of the following fields in the TCP headers is used for flow control?

• Window size
• Urgent pointer
• TCP checksum
• Destination port

Question 85: Each end of the TCP connection uses a buffer to speed up data flow when the network is busy. Which of the following processes manages the flow controls?

• Buffer control
• Sliding window
• Traffic avoidance
• Congestion control

Question 86: You have determined that the round-trip time for a connection in your network is 10 ms. You are making a new TCP connection using Slow Start. The receive window is 24KB and the maximum segment size is 2KB. How long would you expect to take before the first full window of 24KB is sent?

• 10 ms
• 20 ms
• 30 ms
• 40 ms

Question 87: How does the Distance Vector algorithm work?

• It floods the network with a distance vector table at regular intervals
• It exchanges a distance vector table with its neighbors at regular intervals
• It uses Dijkstra’s algorithm to find the shortest path between two nodes in the network
• It uses a count-to-infinity algorithm to find the best path between two nodes in the network

Question 88: After the only member of a multicast group leaves the group, the multicast stream continues to flow for exactly 3 additional minutes before going silent. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this?

• The router is running IGMP version 1, which is outdated
• There is a failing DVMRP router that times out in exactly 3 minutes
• The router is sending the leave request to the wrong multicast address, 224.0.0.2
• The Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) enabled router times out in exactly 3 minutes

Question 89: You are sending a ping command via ICMP to a remote address, but you receive a “Destination Unreachable” message with a code of 4 in the header. Which of the following might be a reason for this?

• The packets are looping endlessly
• The datagram is too big and the DF bit is set
• An illegal value has been detected in a header field
• The router has noticed that a packet seems to be routed incorrectly

Question 90: The string 0111101111101111110 needs to be transmitted via the data link layer. After bit stuffing, what would the transmitted string actually look like?

• 011110111101011110110
• 011110111110011111010
• 001111001111100111111100
• 0111110011111010111110100

Question 91: CSMA is a protocol that does which of the following?

• Determine who accesses the media in a multi-host environment
• Route L2 traffic from source to destination based on the state of the media
• Monitor transmission media to determine when it is congestion and alert users
• Retransmit a damaged packet based on a random timer that is started when a collision occurs

Question 92: Which of the following statements is true?

• TCP is a connection-oriented service, which means that connections are very reliable
• TCP is a connectionless service, which means that segments are always accounted for
• In a connection-oriented service like UDP, lost segments are accounted for, but not retransmitted
• In a connectionless service like UDP, all segments are always acknowledged and lost ones retransmitted

Question 93: Which of the following services is provided by the physical layer?

• User authorization
• Transmission of long messages
• Transfer of data frames from one node to another
• Mechanical and electrical properties of transmission media

Question 94: Which of the following is one of the main differences between the IMAP and POP protocols?

• IMAP is used to retrieve emails from a server, while POP is used to send emails
• POP is used to retrieve emails from the server, while IMAP is used to send emails
• IMAP messages are stored in a mail server, while in POP messages are downloaded to the local machine
• POP messages are accessible from any machine anywhere, while IMAP can only retrieve emails from the local machine

Question 95: Which of the following SNMP processes does a manager run?

• Client
• Server
• TCP
• UDP

Introduction to Computer Communications and Networks

Computer Communications and Networks is a broad and vital field of study that encompasses the principles and technologies enabling communication between computers and other devices over various types of networks. It involves several key areas:

1. Network Architectures and Models

• OSI Model: A conceptual framework with seven layers (Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application) that standardizes network functions.
• TCP/IP Model: The fundamental model for the internet with four layers (Link, Internet, Transport, Application).

2. Network Protocols

• IP (Internet Protocol): Responsible for addressing and routing packets of data.
• TCP (Transmission Control Protocol): Ensures reliable transmission of data.
• UDP (User Datagram Protocol): Provides a simpler, connectionless communication method.

3. Network Types

• LAN (Local Area Network): Covers a small geographic area like a home or office.
• WAN (Wide Area Network): Spans larger geographic areas, often connecting multiple LANs.
• MAN (Metropolitan Area Network): Covers a city or large campus.
• PAN (Personal Area Network): Covers a very short range, often for personal devices.

4. Data Transmission

• Analog vs. Digital: Analog signals vary continuously, while digital signals use discrete values.
• Modulation: Techniques like AM, FM, and QAM are used to encode data onto carrier waves.

5. Network Topologies

• Bus, Star, Ring, Mesh, and Hybrid: Different ways to arrange network devices and connections.

6. Networking Devices

• Routers: Direct traffic between different networks.
• Switches: Manage traffic within a network by forwarding data based on MAC addresses.
• Hubs: Simple devices that broadcast data to all connected devices.

7. Network Security

• Firewalls: Monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic.
• Encryption: Protects data by converting it into a secure format.
• Authentication: Ensures that users and devices are verified.

8. Wireless Networking

• Wi-Fi: Wireless LAN technology based on IEEE 802.11 standards.
• Bluetooth: Short-range communication technology for personal devices.
• Cellular Networks: Mobile networks based on various generations (2G, 3G, 4G, 5G).

9. Network Management and Performance

• Quality of Service (QoS): Manages network resources to ensure performance for critical applications.
• Network Monitoring: Tools and techniques for tracking network performance and troubleshooting issues.

10. Emerging Technologies

• Software-Defined Networking (SDN): Separates network control from hardware to increase flexibility.
• Network Functions Virtualization (NFV): Virtualizes network services traditionally run on hardware.

Understanding these concepts is crucial for designing, managing, and securing modern communication networks.

CS401: Operating Systems Exam Quiz Answers

Question 1: The 64-bit logical address range is equal to which of the following? Select one:

• Less than half of the address range of a 32-bit OS
• Over 10 times that of a 32-bit OS
• 1024mb
• 4 billion 32-bit address ranges

Question 2: Which of the following introduced the capability for many users to simultaneously compete for resources? Select one:

• Batch processing
• Punched cards
• Multiprogramming
• Simplistic multiprocessors

Question 3: Fill in the blank. Computer system components may be divided into the following categories: CPU, memory, I/O modules, and _______________. Select one:

• Operating Systems
• The system bus
• Application programs
• Memory stack

Question 4: All of the following are operating systems in general use today EXCEPT: Select one:

• Unix
• Linux
• Microsoft Windows
• IOCS

Question 5: What is wrong with this diagram?

Select one:

• The operating system is missing.
• The arrows between users and hardware should be removed.
• The lines should not have double arrowheads.
• The lines between applications and hardware should be removed.

Question 6: When a thread context switch occurs, the operating system must save the state of the currently executing thread, copy all registers associated with that thread to a thread control block, and then do which of the following? Select one:

• Terminate the process.
• Restore the state of the thread to run next.
• Wait for further instructions.
• Flush all registers to disk.

Question 7: Fill in the blank. The contents of data registers, a program counter, stack pointer, open file pointers, and memory allocation are all considered to be part of the ________________. Select one:

• Hardware architecture
• Memory structure
• System bus
• Execution context

Question 8: Fill in the blank. While a process can be defined as a unit of resource ownership and pertains to the execution of a single program, a thread is a(n) ___________________. Select one:

• Set of processes
• Unit of execution which belongs to a process
• Non-traceable unit of execution
• Unit of execution which can belong to multiple processes

Question 9: Which of the following statements accurately compares threads to processes? Select one:

• Processes are independent, while threads are part of the same process and cooperate closely.
• Threads can only access a small area of memory, while processes can access a larger area of memory.
• Processes can communicate with each other, while threads cannot communicate or share information with other threads.
• A process can have at most one thread, which inherits all attributes from the process.

Question 10: What is concurrency? Select one:

• The ability of a system to handle requests sequentially
• The ability of an operating system to handle multiple tasks simultaneously
• The capability of an operating system to update itself
• The process by which user rights are managed

Question 11: In the producer/consumer problem, some threads are producers and some are consumers. While producers create items of some kind and add them to a data structurer, consumers do which of the following? Select one:

• Remove the items and store them
• Remove the items and process them
• Add more items to the data structure
• Remove items

Question 12: What are requirements pertaining to the order of events in an operating system called? Select one:

• Synchronization constraints
• Design flaws
• Data sinks
• Data flows

Question 13: One reason that there is a need for a well-structured way to facilitate inter process communication is to ensure predictable behavior. What is the other reason? Select one:

• To ensure faster operation of the system
• To avoid deadlock
• To avoid a system crash
• To maintain integrity of the system

Question 14: Choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. With share memory, interprocess communication is _____________, whereas it is ______________ for message passing. Select one:

• Internal, external
• Explicit, implicit
• Implicit, explicit
• Expensive, inexpensive

Question 15: Fill in the blank. A lock with zero or more conditional variables to manage concurrent access to shared data is called a(n) _______________. Select one:

• Monitor
• Producer
• Consumer
• Philosopher

Question 16: In the readers-writers problem, any number of readers can be in the critical section simultaneously. Which of the following statements is true about writers? Select one:

• Writers can co-exist with other writers in the critical section.
• Writers cannot enter the critical section.
• Writers must have exclusive access to the critical section.
• Writers can be in the critical section with a finite number of readers.

Question 17: All of the following are goals of the scheduler EXCEPT: Select one:

• Minimize wait time.
• Maximize throughput.
• Consume the most memory.
• Acheive fairness.

Question 18: Let’s assume that we have the following processes, arrival times and burst times:

Process	Arrival Time	CPU Burst
P1	0	10
P2	3	8
P3	5	7
P4	5	12

This figure shows which type of CPU scheduling algorithm?

Select one:

• First Come First Served
• Priority
• Shortest Job First
• Round Robin

Question 19: Fill in the blank. The amount of time that a process can execute is called a(n) _______________. Select one:

• CPU burst
• I/O burst
• Sun burst
• Memory cycle

Question 20: All of the following are CPU scheduling algorithms EXCEPT: Select one:

• Shortest Job Last
• Round Robin
• Shortest Time Remaining
• Shortest Job First

Question 21: While a dispatcher removes a process from the ready queue, a scheduler does which of the following? Select one:

• Removes a process from the wait queue
• Adds a process to the wait queue
• Removes all processes
• Inserts a process into a queue

Question 22: The diagram shows what kind of condition?

Select one:

• A race conditions
• A round robin conditions
• A deadlock conditions
• A drydock conditions

Question 23: All of the following are possible options to recover from a deadlock EXCEPT: Select one:

• Terminate a thread or process, forcing it to give up resources.
• Preempt resources without killing it off.
• Shut down the system and restart.
• Rollback actions of deadlocked threads or processes.

Question 24: In order for deadlock to occur all of the following conditions must be met EXCEPT: Select one:

• Mutual exclusion
• Hold and wait
• Non-preemption
• Rectangular wait

Question 25: In the diagram shown below, assume that the circles are processes and the rectangles are instances of a resource. Also, assume that a line from a process to a resource (i.e. the arrowhead is on the resource side) indicates that a process is requesting a resource. A line from a resource to a process (i.e. the arrowhead is on the process side) indicates that a resource has been allocated to a process. Why does this diagram show a deadlock?

Select one:

• Resource R2 has been allocated to only one process, P3.
• Process P3 must wait for process P2 to be finished with resource R3 before it can use this resource.
• Process P1 is waiting on resource R1, which has been allocated to process P2. Process P2 is waiting for resource R3, which is currently allocated to process P1. Thus, there is a circular wait condition.
• There is no mutual exclusion present.

Question 26: Which of the following statements best describes the Banker’s Algorithm? Select one:

• The Banker’s Algorithm allocates resources dynamically to prevent deadlock.
• The Banker’s Algorithm brokers loans of resources between processes.
• The Banker’s Algorithm has never been proven to work correctly.
• The Banker’s Algorithm is best used when a large amount of memory is available.

Question 27: Fill in the blank. Translating memory references in code to actual physical memory is called _______________. Select one:

• Relocation
• Translation
• Iteration
• Transliteration

Question 28: Which of the following are requirements of memory management that the operating system must perform? Select one:

• Buffer overflow and logical mapping
• Memory allocation and subdiving memory for multiple processes
• Blocking and deallocating failed memory
• Memory protection and buffer overflow

Question 29: All of the following are part of the memory management hierarchy EXCEPT: Select one:

• Hardware memory management
• Application memory management
• Printer memory management
• Operating system memory management

Question 30: While hardware memory management is most concerned with electronic devices, such as RAM, that actually store data, operating system memory management is concerned with which of the following? Select one:

• How to request more memory from the owner of the system
• How to allocate memory to processes and reallocate it when it is no longer needed
• Fragmenting physical memory
• Only virtual memory management

Question 31: How does the operating system use virtual memory to make application programs think that they have a full 32-bit address space when physical memory is often much less? Select one:

• Ram is used to store information multiple times.
• Frequently used items are stored in RAM, while less used items are stored on disk. When needed, items from disk are brought into memory.
• Disk is directly mapped to memory addresses.
• Extremely fast disk is mapped to memory addresses.

Question 32: While the best fit algorithm scans the free memory list to find the best free hole to use for a memory request, the first fit algorithm does which of the following? Select one:

• It finds the largest free space that can accommodate the request.
• It finds the first free space that can accommodate the request.
• It finds the first free space that will exactly accommodate the request.
• It finds the first free space irregardless of whether the request will fit in the space or not.

Question 33: Assume that the disk head is currently at 50. We have the following disk cylinder requests from processes (assume that they have all arrived at the same time).

110,18,21,98,112,150,190

Using the First Come First Served algorithm, how many cylinders would the disk arm move across in total to accommodate all requests? Select one:

• 204
• 324
• 169
• 523

Question 34: Assume that the disk head is currently at 50. We have the following disk cylinder requests from processes (assume that they have all arrived at the same time).

110,18,21,98,112,150,190

Using the Shortest Seek Time algorithm, how many cylinders would the disk arm move across in total to accommodate all requests? Select one:

• 204
• 324
• 109
• 456

Question 35: All of the following are ways to access a file EXCEPT: Select one:

• Sequential access
• Parallel access
• Content-based access
• Random access

Question 36: All of the following are types of security threats EXCEPT: Select one:

• Errors and omissions
• Fraud and theft
• System failure
• Malicious hackers

Question 37: Which of the following dictates that programs, users, and systems be given just enough privileges to perform their tasks? Select one:

• Marconi Algorithm
• Fault Tolerent Principle
• Security Principle
• Principle of Least Privilege

Question 38: Fill in the blank. Self-replicating code that does not require a host program is called a(n) _________________. Select one:

• Trojan horse
• Worm
• Virus
• Modular bot

Question 39: Fill in the blank. A code segment that replicates itself by attaching copies of itself to existing executables is called a(n) _____________. Select one:

• Trojan horse
• Virus
• Worm
• Logic bomb

Question 40: Which of the following is an access control method that assigns privileges to users, programs, or roles as appropriate? Select one:

• Role-based access control
• Static access control
• Dynamic access control
• Rule-based access control

Question 41: Fill in the blank. One form of broadcast transmission, unicast, sends a message from one node to another. Another type of transmission that sends a message from one node to many is called _______________. Select one:

• Swellcast
• Multicast
• Avicast
• Plexicast

Question 42: Fill in the blank. While protocols are used to communicate between nodes, _____________ contain data encoded using a protocol. Select one:

• Packets
• Bits
• Packages
• Bytes

Question 43: Which of the following is a type of network that connects hosts within a building or campus of buildings? Select one:

• Wide-area network
• Local-area network
• Metropolitan area network
• Global network

Question 44: The TCP/IP reference model has how many layers? Select one:

• 4
• 7
• 16
• 5

Question 45: The OSI reference model has how many layers? Select one:

• 5
• 7
• 12
• 3

Question 46: Multiple protocols can be handled by a network operating system through the use of which of the following? Select one:

• Application programs
• Translators
• Buffering
• Layering

Question 47: Fill in the blank. The physical layout of a network is called its ________________. Select one:

• Physical schema
• Cabling specifications
• Topology
• Lineage

Question 48: Which of the following statements about operating systems is false? Select one:

• An operating system manages a computer system’s resources.
• An operating system is not a necessary software component of all computer systems.
• An operating system acts as an interface between hardware and application programs.
• An operating system provides a set of services to users.

Question 49: All of the following are reasons for a context switch EXCEPT: Select one:

• There is an elapsed time slice.
• A higher priority thread is ready to run.
• A running thread needs to wait.
• A running thread is stuck in a loop.

Question 50: All of the following are ways for a programmer to implement concurrency EXCEPT: Select one:

• Blocking
• Inter-process communication
• Mapping processes directly to hardware
• Select-based programming

Question 51: Consider the following pseudocode:

while True:

think ()

get_forks ()

eat ()

put_forks ()

This code best represents which of the following?

Select one:

• Moaning philosophers problem
• Producer-consumer problem
• Readers-writers problem
• Dining philosophers problem

Question 52: A race condition results when which of the following occurs? Select one:

• Two processes compete for the same resource at the same time.
• An operation depends upon the ordering of when individual processes are run.
• Two processes depend on each other to release resources that each need.
• The cpu is processing faster than memory.

Question 53: Fill in the blank. When processes communicate with one another, this is often done through the use of ______________. Select one:

• Shared memory
• Semaphores
• Morse code
• Shared files

Question 54: Which of the following best represents one of the advantages of semaphores? Select one:

• They are not expensive to implement.
• They can be written only in Java.
• They impose deliberate constraints that help programmers avoid error.
• They increase programmer productivity.

Question 55: All of the following are places where scheduling decisions may take place EXCEPT: Select one:

• When a process is deadlocked.
• When a process switches from running to waiting state.
• When a process terminates.
• When a process switches from waiting to ready.

Question 56: Fill in the blank. One of the common ways to detect deadlock is to scan the resource allocation graph and ________________. Select one:

• Recover from deadlock
• Terminate all processes
• Detect quadratic process events
• Detect circular chains of requests

Question 57: Fill in the blank. A system is in a safe state when deadlock is avoided even if the system ________________. Select one:

• Has low memory
• Is in a state of deadlock
• Lacks sufficient privileges
• Allocates resources up to the maximum for each process

Question 58: While deadlock avoidance is a strategy which only grants a resource to a process if the request will not result in deadlock, deadlock prevention does which of the following? Select one:

• Follows a strict set of rules to prevent deadlock
• Changes the rules so that processes will not make requests which will cause deadlock
• Never works correctly
• Causes only one process to execute on the processor at one time

Question 59: All of the following are page replacement algorithms EXCEPT: Select one:

• LRU
• OPT
• NRU
• Best Fit

Question 60: Fill in the blank. When a page of memory is requested and the valid bit is set to false in the page table, a __________________ occurs, and the page is retrieved from disk and swapped with another page on a frame in memory. Select one:

• Memory exchange
• Page fault
• Ram shift
• Memory optimization

Question 61: Fill in the blank. When a process spends all of its time page faulting instead of doing useful work, this is called ________________. Select one:

• Wasted time
• Memory mash
• Thrashing
• Trashing

Question 62: The diagram below shows what method of file allocation?

Select one:

• Indexed
• Chained
• Uniform
• Contiguous

Question 63: The resources that a process may access are specified by which of the following? Select one:

• An integrity domain
• A protection domain
• A domain fences
• A protection grids

Question 64: What is one restriction of a 32-bit kernel? Select one:

• The maximum size of an individual process
• The number of threads that can execute at once
• The size of the cache
• The link to the DMA controller

Question 65: A process can be defined as a unit of execution characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: Select one:

• A single sequential thread of execution.
• A current state.
• Exclusive control of one computer component.
• Having a set of system resources associated with it.

Question 66: Fill in the blank. Executable threads contained in a queue maintained by the scheduler are called ________________. Select one:

• Ready threads
• Processes
• Waiting threads
• Terminated threads

Question 67: Which of the following describes one objective of CPU scheduling? Select one:

• To keep the CPU free as much as possible
• To decide which threads and/or processes should be given access to resources from moment to moment
• To flush out internal caches to disk when they are full
• To schedule backup jobs for the CPI

Question 68: Let’s assume that we have the following processes, arrival times and burst times:

Process Arrival Time CPU Burst

—————————————————————–

P1 0 10

P2 3 8

P3 5 7

P4 5 12

The figure shows which type of CPU scheduling algorithm?

Select one:

• Shortest Job First
• First Come First Served
• Round Robin
• Priority

Question 69: A process is considered to be preemptive when it can be forced to give up the CPU. Which of the following statements about a nonpreemptive process is true? Select one:

• It can be terminated by any other process.
• It runs until it terminates or willingly gives up control.
• It never terminates.
• It always only lasts one CPU burst.

Question 70: Fill in the blank. When allocating memory, holes left over which are not big enough to satisfy any requests are called ____________. Select one:

• Fragments
• Holes
• Vortexes
• Parity bits

Question 71: While paging makes each process think that it has more memory than it really has, segmentation goes one step further by doing which of the following? Select one:

• Allowing each process to have multiple simulated memories
• Allowing each process to have more than one page fault at the same time
• Allowing each process to spawn into subprocesses
• Allowing physical memory to be split up

Question 72: Which disk scheduling algorithms perform better for systems that place a heavy load on disk? Select one:

• Shortest Seek Time First
• First Come First Served
• SCAN and C-SCAN
• Look and C-Look

Question 73: The diagram shows which type of file allocation method?

Select one:

• Contiguous
• Chained
• Indexed
• Hash key

Question 74: Two nodes on a network communicate via which of the following? Select one:

• Language
• Prototype
• Protocol
• Handshake

Question 75: All of the following are reference models EXCEPT: Select one:

• TCP/IP
• OSI
• Pyramid Reference Model
• Five Layers Model

Question 76: Fill in the blank. While physical sectors are a reality of hardware, these are abstracted in the file system to ______________. Select one:

• Logical blocks
• Named files
• Page tables
• Virtual memory

Question 77: Disk access time is composed of which of the following? Select one:

• Rotational latency and cache size
• Seek time and pause time
• Seek time and rotational latency
• Rotational latency and disk arm length

Question 78: Which computer security threat is directly related to the amount of information being stored on computers? Select one:

• Threats to personal privacy
• Malicious code
• Loss of physical infrastructure
• Errors and omissions

Question 79: Which of the following statements is true of the operating systems of the 1950’s? Select one:

• They were as good as today’s operating systems.
• Generally, they ran only one job at a time.
• They could accommodate many users at once.
• Operating systems did not exist in the 1950’s.

Question 80: Fill in the blank. The following figure shows an example of a(n) ______________. Select one:

• Fetch cycle
• Instruction cycle
• Execution cycle
• CPU cycle

Question 81: Fill in the blank. A block of code where shared resources are accessed is called a(n) ______________. Select one:

• Cache
• Heap
• Critical section
• Stack

Question 82: When thinking about an operating system, synchronization refers to which of the following? Select one:

• The way that the system clock is managed
• The way that the computer starts up
• Relationships among any number of events
• Software vs. hardware timing

Question 83: All of the following are differences between an integer and a semaphore EXCEPT: Select one:

• You cannot read the current value of a semaphore.
• A semaphore can be negative whereas an integer cannot be.
• When a thread decrements the semaphore, if the result is negative, the thread blocks itself and cannot continue until another thread increments the semaphore.
• When a thread increments the semaphore, if there are other threads waiting, one of the waiting threads gets unblocked.

Question 84: Fill in the blank. When each process or thread in a set is waiting for resources to be freed by other processes or threads in the set then ________________ occurs. Select one:

• Chaos
• Deadlock
• Controlled order
• Stack overflow

Question 85: All of the following are file system components EXCEPT: Select one:

• Page table
• Disk management
• Naming
• Reliability

Question 86: Of all of the computer security threats, which would be the hardest for an organization to control? Select one:

• Industrial espionage
• Loss of physical and infrastructure support
• Malicious code
• Hackers

Introduction to Operating Systems

Operating systems (OS) are crucial software that manage hardware and software resources on a computer. They provide a user interface and enable applications to run. Here are some key aspects and popular examples of operating systems:

Key Functions of Operating Systems

1. Process Management: OS manages processes in the system, including scheduling and executing processes, handling multitasking, and ensuring smooth execution.
2. Memory Management: It handles the allocation and deallocation of memory space as needed by programs. This includes virtual memory management to extend the available memory.
3. File System Management: The OS manages files and directories on storage devices, including organizing, reading, writing, and permissions.
4. Device Management: It controls hardware devices through drivers and provides a way for software to interact with hardware components.
5. User Interface: OS provides a user interface, which can be command-line-based (CLI) or graphical (GUI), allowing users to interact with the computer.
6. Security and Access Control: The OS enforces security policies to protect data and system integrity, including user authentication and authorization.
7. Networking: It handles network connections, including managing network protocols and ensuring data transmission between devices.

Popular Operating Systems

Desktop Operating Systems:

1. Windows: Developed by Microsoft, Windows is widely used in personal and business environments. It features a graphical interface and extensive software compatibility.
2. macOS: Developed by Apple, macOS is known for its sleek design and integration with Apple’s ecosystem. It’s commonly used in creative industries.
3. Linux: Linux is an open-source OS with various distributions (distros) like Ubuntu, Fedora, and Debian. It’s popular for its flexibility, security, and use in servers and embedded systems.
4. Chrome OS: Developed by Google, Chrome OS is designed primarily for web-based tasks and runs on Chromebooks. It integrates tightly with Google’s services and the Chrome browser.

Mobile Operating Systems:

1. Android: Developed by Google, Android is the most widely used mobile OS. It powers a wide range of devices, including smartphones and tablets.
2. iOS: Developed by Apple, iOS is used exclusively on iPhones and iPads. It’s known for its security and smooth integration with Apple’s hardware.

Server Operating Systems:

1. Windows Server: Microsoft’s server OS, designed for handling enterprise-level tasks such as data management, network services, and hosting applications.
2. Linux Server Distributions: Many server environments use Linux due to its stability, security, and cost-effectiveness. Popular distros include CentOS, Ubuntu Server, and Red Hat Enterprise Linux.
3. UNIX: A powerful, multiuser OS used in various high-performance computing environments and servers.

Embedded and Real-Time Operating Systems:

1. RTOS (Real-Time Operating Systems): Designed for systems requiring timely processing, such as industrial robots, medical devices, and automotive systems. Examples include FreeRTOS and VxWorks.
2. Embedded Linux: Customized versions of Linux used in embedded systems, like smart appliances and IoT devices.

Operating systems continue to evolve, addressing new challenges and incorporating advanced features to meet the growing demands of users and technology.

CS302: Software Engineering Exam Quiz Answers

Question 1: Which of these are the generic activities that software engineers do?

• Planning, designing, programming, testing, and marketing
• Analysis, design, implementation, testing, and maintenance
• Reviewing, risk management, measurement, and production
• Communication, planning, modeling, construction, and deployment

Question 2: Which of the following disciplines does software engineering have the most in common with?

• Automation and robotics
• Modeling and thinking about code
• Communication and manufacturing
• Designing hardware and writing code

Question 3: Which of the following are the main ways that software products are characterized?

• Necessity, certainty, flexibility, and testability
• Usability, maintainability, dependability, and efficiency
• Number of GUIs, database independence, bandwidth, and size
• Number of files, codebase size, programming language, and domain

Question 4: You are managing a software project for the human resource department. The test data is all current company employee files. The project team test results will be presented during the phase acceptance walk-through. A user team member remarks that the use of employee data in violation of the software engineering code of ethics. Which component of the code of ethics might the team member be referencing?

• Competency
• Confidentiality
• Integrity
• Personal use

Question 5: Which of the following software development life cycle phases involves creating modeling diagrams?

• Design
• Implementation
• Maintenance
• Testing

Question 6: Which of the following life cycle models is easy to understand and implement, works well on large/mature products and weak teams, and fits in with other engineering process models?

• Spiral model
• Waterfall model
• Incremental model
• Evolutionary model

Question 7: Which of the following is a situation where the iterative life cycle development process is more suitable than the sequential life cycle development process?

• When requirements are well defined, such as with DSS
• When the prototype will be used as the completed project
• When multiple deliverables are able to be completed simultaneously
• When rapid development of part of the system can ease a critical work situation for users

Question 8: Which of the following deliverables is part of the analysis phase?

• Error report
• System proposal
• System configurations
• Initial operation of the system

Question 9: Which of the following roles is the person who is to transform a technology-free statement of user requirements into a high-level architecture?

• Team Leader
• System Analyst
• Project Manager
• System Designer

Question 10: Which of the following is one of the main principles of Rapid Application Development?

• Fast development and delivery of the final system at a low cost
• Maximizing programmers’ productivity by providing tight-knit components
• Modeling across layers using Extended Enterprise Modeling Language (EEML)
• Joint application design (JAD), where users are intensely involved in system design

Question 11: Which of the following statements about Spiral development is true?

• It organizes the elements of the problem and the solution in one step
• Each spiral begins with reviewing database transactions and commits
• Each cycle involves a progression through the same sequence of steps
• It focuses on minimizing project cost by implementing it as one spiral block

Question 12: What is the language property that selects the actual modules to execute during the application operation?

• Dynamic binding
• Inheritance
• Polymorphism
• Encapsulation

Question 13: Which of the following statements best describes inheritance?

• Deriving new objects from existing objects
• Deriving new classes from existing classes
• Using the methods from an existing library in another library
• Using the defined data from an existing library in another library

Question 14: How many operations are in this class?

• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4

Question 15: Which of the following is a property of data that describes that it is vague in meaning, or could be subject to multiple meanings?

• Diversity
• Ambiguity
• Semanticity
• Incompleteness

Question 16: In general, what kind of process do we use to validate the information received from any source as part of a data collection process?

• Justification
• Semantic
• Testifying
• Triangulation

Question 17: Which of the data/requirements gathering techniques is used for an executive information systems application?

• Meetings
• Interviews
• Observation
• Questionnaires

Question 18: There are a number of techniques for gathering requirements. Which of the following is the best technique for gathering correct requirements?

• Observation
• Reviewing software
• Reviewing external documents
• Reviewing internal documents

Question 19: In order to gather requirements, a software engineering company may develop different types of questions to use when interviewing stakeholders. Which of the following types of questions is best to use in interviews to gather complete and correct requirements?

• Structured
• Close-ended
• Open-ended
• Unstructured

Question 20: A software engineer who observed and documented as a user of a proposed software application performed a particular task. This software engineer then validated the documented task with a senior stakeholder. What did the software engineer do?

• Analysis
• Coding
• Design
• Inheritance

Question 21: A project walk-through at the end of the requirements gathering phase includes which of the following?

• Consistency check
• Database design
• Project plan
• Test Plan

Question 22: When performing an object-oriented analysis to identify objects, which of the following is placed in the “problem space”?

• Attribute
• Instance
• Object
• Subroutine

Question 23: A software engineering company and its customer selected requirements from a number of requirements that should be contained in a proposed software application. What did they do?

• Determined the scope
• Designed the project
• Managed the project
• Requested a proposal

Question 24: Which of the following activities is completed during the program design phase?

• Document programs
• System tests each program
• Unit test system
• User acceptance tests

Question 25: Which of the following diagrams best models this situation?

“Cars may have many passengers, they come and go.”

Question 26: Which of the following statements about object-oriented programming languages is true?

• They work as database management systems within other programs
• Their programs made from objects that interact with their own methods
• Their objects correspond to the main libraries in the main program structure
• Their data is contained in attributes and their code takes the form of methods

Question 27: Which kind of programming language is used to build applications out of integrated sets of application-specific reusable parts?

• Toolkit language
• Linguistic language
• Notations language
• Configuration language

Question 28: Which of the following statements about a software configuration item (SCI) is true?

• It is the first step in controlling changes to identify items
• It serves as a reference for the software design and analysis process
• It is used to investigate the current status of specific software elements
• It is an aggregation of software designated for configuration management

Question 29: Which of the following is the best description of a unit test?

• It is performed for each of the smallest units of code
• It is the last testing done before sending code to production
• It verifies users’ satisfaction for each unit function in the code
• It is conducted for each graphical user interface in the software

Question 30: What is the purpose of the regression tests?

• To perform an objective, unbiased assessment of the application database
• To ensure that changes to an application have not led to unintended problems
• To verify that the functional specifications are met and GUIs operate as desired
• To verify the logic and processing for suites of modules that perform some activity

Question 31: A software engineer wrote a function to add two numbers. Which of the following should be used to test the function?

• Unit testing
• System testing
• Integration testing
• User acceptance testing

Question 32: Which testing approach is used to determine the correctness of output based on their inputs?

• Red-box testing
• Gray-box testing
• Black-box testing
• White-box testing

Question 33: When creating a test plan of a system that’s supposed to do different actions based on different conditions, what is the best specification-based technique you should use to verify the relationships between the input and the output?

• Decision tables
• Random testing
• Equivalence partitioning
• Boundary-value analysis

Question 34: Comparing between a software engineer (SE) and a project manager (PM), which of the following statements is true?

• The SE designs the system, while the PM implements strategies
• The SE develops the budget, while the PM monitors and controls the budget
• The SE designs system test cases, while the PM executes those tests cases
• The SE designs and applies unit tests, while the PM designs and applies system tests

Question 35: Which of the following statements about project managers is true?

• They develop financial and organizational assessments
• They usually deal with tech support and equipment issues
• They negotiate with users about GUIs and database types
• They act as a buffer between technical staff and team leaders

Question 36: Which of the following responsibilities does the project manager perform when he or she is selecting and evaluating project personnel?

• Acting as liaison
• Identifying project tasks
• Monitoring the project
• Managing the project staff

Question 37: How would you ensure that relevant and useful data is collected about a software project?

• Conduct a feasibility analysis
• Review and evaluate the code
• Implement a measurement process
• Evaluate the software’s performance

Question 38: Which of the following could be a valid actor in the use case diagram of a chat software?

• GUI
• Database
• Participant
• Connection Socket

Question 39: You are developing address book software that should be compatible with Microsoft Windows, let the user back up data easily, and have a user-friendly GUI. The system should take the actions needed to make managing contacts simple, including logging in using a password, adding, removing and searching contacts (by first name, last name, phone number or any other field), making calls, and sending emails. Which of the following must be represented as a class in the class diagram?

• Email
• Contact
• Password
• Address Book

Question 40: XYZ Company decided to develop a software solution to make their work easier. The system will be used to manage appointments by viewing, adding, removing, and updating appointments. Which of the following should be part of the class diagram?

• System
• Company
• Appointment
• Management

Question 41: You are working on software for a company where “each manager has a project and there is no project without a manager”. Which of the following diagrams represents that quote?

Question 42: As a part of your test plan, which of the following would you do to check the system’s behavior against the customer’s requirements?

• Call virtual testers to do correctness testing
• Run the system in different platforms with different input
• Work with team members to conduct qualification testing
• Turn off each GUI and test the system modules individually

Question 43: As a software engineer, which of the following would you do to implement error guessing techniques?

• Generate test cases randomly, using operational profiling
• Run one test case for each module in the system in a random order
• Design test cases, execute them, and then modify them dynamically
• Design test cases that attempt to determine the most plausible faults

Question 44: Which of the following is a programming technique that you should keep in mind when trying to write efficient software?

• Do not use parameter passing often
• Use bottom-up design for complex problems
• Be sure to use external storage concurrently
• Keep local variables within functions or methods

Question 45: James is a software engineer who is working in a new project. One of his managers recommended that he illegally use a copyrighted code snippet instead of writing the code from scratch. Which software engineering code of ethics principles best applies to this situation?

• Software engineers shall be fair to and supportive of their colleagues
• Software engineers shall act in a manner that is in the best interests of their employer
• Software engineers shall ensure that their products meet the highest professional standards
• Software engineers shall respect the work required to produce inventions and computing artifacts

Question 46: Which of the following are parts of the maintenance phase in the software development life cycle?

• User maintenance, site selection, preparation, and file conversion
• Translating requirements into a representation and documentation
• Detecting errors in the software’s requirements, design, and coding
• Updating and improving the software to ensure continued usefulness

Question 47: Which of the following roles is the person who is familiar with multiple application areas with very good communication and interpersonal skills, knows programming-in-the-large, and can translate requirements into specifications?

• Programmer
• System Analyst
• Project Manager
• System Designer

Question 48: Which of the following statements about the Agile process is true?

• It demands fixed features, not fixed time
• It has a high emphasis on analysis and design
• It is best when requirements are vague or changing
• A typical iteration takes somewhere between 4 to 6 months

Question 49: Which of the following is true about a static method?

• It deals only with private data members and methods
• It should be unique and must only return static values
• It belongs to the class rather than the object of a class
• It takes no parameters and does not return any values

Question 50: What does (-) represent in this class?

• Public attribute
• Private attribute
• Protected attribute
• Derived attribute

Question 51: Which of the following is the best way to model this code snippet?

Class Manager {

    Worker workers [];

}

Class Worker {

}

Question 52: Data differs on several important dimensions, and each dimension is important in defining the requirements of applications. Which of the following is one of these dimensions?

• Amount
• Execution
• Importance
• Structure

Question 53: Which of the following is an example of software stakeholders?

• Users, who will use the software
• Testers, who are responsible for testing the software
• Cybersecurity teams, who are responsible for verifying online security
• Project managers, who have a responsibility for the legal ramifications of the software

Question 54: If you are working on specifying the requirements for simple software products as a system analyst, which of the following documents will you be producing regularly?

• Design diagrams documents
• System definition documents
• System requirements documents
• Software requirements documents

Question 55: When performing an object-oriented analysis to identify processes, which of the following is placed in the “problem space”?

• Activity
• Comment
• Status
• Subroutine

Question 56: Which type of language would be best if you wanted to write a series of commands that would be interpreted one by one at runtime?

• Scripting
• Functional
• Procedural
• Object-oriented

Question 57: Which kind of programming language is the simplest type of construction language, where software engineers choose from a limited set of predefined options to create new or custom software installations?

• Toolkit language
• Visual language
• Configuration language
• Object-oriented language

Question 58: In each test level, a strategy for testing must be chosen. Which of these strategies looks at the specific logic of the application to verify how it works?

• Black-box
• White-box
• Top-down
• Bottom-up

Question 59: You are developing an online search engine. The search engine is expected to receive hundreds of thousands of requests. What type of plans should you consider in order to test the system load?

• Hire thousands of users to test the system at the same time
• Create thousands of virtual users using a performance testing tool
• Install the system on a distributed multi-purpose cluster-computing framework
• Ask each of your team members to generate a series of requests in the system

Question 60: Which of the following skills is needed by both software engineers and project managers?

• Critical thinking
• Allocating resources
• Strong programming
• Experience with algorithms

Question 61: Which of the following responsibilities is performed when the project manager is reporting project status?

• Acting as liaison
• Eliciting tasks
• Managing the project staff
• Monitoring the project

Question 62: During which of the following processes do you apply the Plan, Do, Check, and Act (PDCA) approach?

• When projects fall behind schedule
• When projects lack sufficient resources
• When improving the quality of software products
• When adding more records to system databases

Question 63: As a project manager making a project plan, you are afraid that some of the required hardware might not be delivered on time. What management activity should you consider to address this issue?

• Increase the budget of the project
• Consider this issue as a potential risk
• Allocate a different type of hardware instead
• Eliminate this hardware from required resources

Question 64: You are developing an online web portal for a local school. Which of the following could you consider as a use case name?

• HTTPS
• About Us
• Homepage
• Enroll in a course

Question 65: In order to verify the interactions between software components, which of the following should you do?

• Include integration testing in your test plan
• Verify the output of the system for different inputs
• Conduct unit testing for each module in the system
• Call for a meeting to verify with components developers

Question 66: What is the name of this class?

• Flight
• flightNumber
• getArrivalTime
• Integer

Question 67: Which of the following statements about the software development life cycle (SDLC) is true?

• It starts by turning software design into a set of specifications
• All of its phases emphasize both generalization and classification
• Users and stakeholders are essential players in each of its phases
• It allows for a high level of management control and documentation

Question 68: Which of the following is a situation where the sequential life cycle development process is more suitable than the iterative life cycle development process?

• When the prototype will be used as the completed project
• When multiple deliverables are able to be completed simultaneously
• When rapid development of the system can ease a critical work situation for users
• When requirements are well defined, such as with an order-entry/transaction system

Question 69: Which of the following software development life cycle models would be preferred when the goal is to understand the customer’s requirements, and to develop a better definition of requirements for the system?

• Spiral model
• Waterfall model
• Incremental model
• Evolutionary model

Question 70: Which development phase is extremely critical, time-consuming, and requires proper planning to execute specified cases?

• Coding
• Design
• Feasibility study
• Testing

Question 71: Which of the following is a main feature of the Unified process?

• It involves sequential development of the system and the construction of prototypes
• It is based on Unified Modeling Language and organizes the development into four phases
• It includes manager-developer meetings, and managers are closely involved in development
• It focuses on risk assessment and minimizing risk by breaking a project into smaller segments

Question 72: Which of the following statements best describes encapsulation?

• Enclosing class methods as private methods
• Presenting the same data member in different forms
• Bundling data members with methods into a single unit
• Recapitulating or briefly modifying all class data members

Question 73: Which of the following defines the values of a specific occurrence of an object?

• Binding
• Inheritance
• Instantiation
• Polymorphism

Question 74: Which of the following is the main quality of an abstract class?

• It is not represented in most UML diagrams
• It has static methods and constants, but no objects
• It is used to represent aggregation with another class
• Its attributes correspond to members of another class

Question 75: Which kinds of requirements are generally written from a bird’s-eye view (at a high level), but can also be very detailed and contain annotations, notes, and references to other materials, such as screen and page mockups and flow diagrams?

• Functional requirements
• Nonfunctional requirements
• System attribute requirements
• Logical database requirements

Question 76: Which of the following requirements gathering techniques can both complement and replace interviews?

• Meetings
• Observation
• Questionnaires
• Reviewing internal documents

Question 77: Which of the following statements about the interview requirements gathering technique is true?

• It is best for multicultural companies
• It allows decisions to be made rapidly
• It requires triangulation to verify results
• It prevents bias on the part of respondents

Question 78: At a virtual team meeting for a class project, one of your classmates suggests that the finished project is a decision support system. Which data/requirements technique is generally used for this application type?

• Interview
• Meeting
• Observation
• Questionnaire

Question 79: At a virtual team meeting for a class project, one of your classmates suggests that the finished project is a transaction processing systems application and therefore, based on professional usage, which of the following data/requirements techniques is generally used for this application type?

• Interview
• Meeting
• Observation
• Questionnaire

Question 80: When performing an object-oriented analysis to identify objects, which of the following is placed in the “solution space”?

• Attribute
• Instance
• Object
• Subroutine

Question 81: During the design phase, which of the following activities recurs?

• Planning the next project
• Preparing documentation
• Reviewing feasibility
• Reviewing programs

Question 82: Which of the following statements describes the relationship between A and B?

• A has B
• A is part of B
• A overrides B
• A is a subclass of B

Question 83: Which of the following code snippets best represents the relationship described in this diagram?

• Class Student extends IDCard {

….

}

• Class Student implements IDCard {

….

}

• Class Student {

IDCard id_card;

….

}

• Class IDCard {

Student student;

….

}

Question 84: Which of the following programming languages is a popular commercial version of Smalltalk?

• Java
• DigitalS
• Visual C++
• VisualWorks

Question 85: Which of the following statements about top-down tests is true?

• They are the last tests done before an application is placed into production status
• They assume that critical control code and functions will be developed and tested first
• They aim to apply the same number of incremental tests in each module of the system
• They are based on logic and are similar to system tests in their makeup and objectives

Question 86: When a project manager is acting as the buffer between the technical staff and the organization stakeholders, which of the following responsibilities are they performing?

• Acting as liaison
• Maintaining corporate culture
• Managing the project staff
• Monitoring the project

Question 87: Which of the following could be considered as a valid class name in a library’s software system?

• Book
• Subject
• AuthorName
• PublisherName

Question 88: You are developing a chat application that allows users to send messages and make voice calls. Which of the following could be considered as a class in the system?

• Message
• Password
• Microphone
• ContactName

Question 89: In this sequence diagram, what traces are possible?

• x → y → k → w → z → p
• x → y → w → k → p → z
• x → y → z → k → p → w
• x → y → z → p → k → w

Question 90: Which of the following best describes the essence of software engineering?

• Organizing resources in a logical manner
• Maintaining automatic software development mechanisms
• Systemizing the development, operation, and maintenance of software
• Identifying standards for software developers’ assessment and evaluation processes

Question 91: Which kinds of methods and instance variables are members of a class?

• All methods and instance variables
• Private methods; public instance variables
• Private instance variables; public methods
• All non-static instance variables and methods

Question 92: What is the named field or property that describes a class/object or a process?

• Attribute
• Data type
• Instance
• Primary key

Question 93: You are working on defining requirements for the class game project. Which discipline of the requirements process describes how you want to establish a clear scope and boundaries for the project?

• Elicitation
• Management
• Specification
• Validation

Question 94: Which of the following would you use to validate the software engineer’s interpretation of the software requirements?

• Prototyping
• Model validation
• Acceptance testing
• Requirements reviews

Question 95: During the analysis phase, which of the following disciplines recurs continuously?

• Elicitation
• Identify interactions
• Management
• Specification

Question 96: Which of the following statements about Java is true?

• It is a mix of JavaScript and Python
• It has no pointers or low-level constructs
• It cannot be used as a portable language
• It requires explicit allocation and deallocation of memory

Question 97: What is one of the benefits of using a version control system?

• It helps every team member use the latest versions of their tools
• It helps end-users keep their software updated to the latest version
• It keeps every team member working off the latest software version
• It allows app store managers to manage different software versions

Question 98: Which kinds of tests are project team tests?

• Acceptance tests
• Developmental tests
• Regression tests
• System tests

Question 99: Which type of test should be used to verify the performance, reliability, and usability of a system?

• Unit tests
• Integration tests
• Functional tests
• Nonfunctional tests

Question 100: As a project manager working on a software project, you need to solicit bids from potential vendors. Which of the following steps should you take as part of this process?

• Arrange a meeting with all staff members to request a proposal
• Prepare a detailed process planning document to discuss with vendors
• Work with software engineers to develop a resource planning document
• Sign contracts with each available vendor to supply different project needs

Question 101: You are interested in a career in healthcare, designing and developing better automated tools that work on the home computers of senior citizens. You have an interest in developing systems that use genetic analysis for at-home solutions for the care of bone degeneration, heart/lung/circulatory issues, cancer growths, and sugar diabetes. Which of the following degree areas would you consider if you are more interested in designing tools than in actually coding or building them?

• Computer Science
• Electrical Engineering
• Math and Biology
• Software Engineering

Question 102: You submit a Use Case diagram to your project manager for a project you are working on. The project manager says it needs to be simplified to make the behavior between use cases easier to understand. Your diagram includes too many of which of the following relationships?

• Extend
• Generalization
• Improve
• Include

Question 103: As a software engineer, which of the following should you do to cover all the statements or blocks of statements in a given program’s tests?

• Generate mutation test cases
• Conduct unit testing multiple times
• Apply criteria based on control flow
• Request an input flow sequence document

Introduction to Software Engineering

Software engineering is a broad field that focuses on the systematic design, development, maintenance, and management of software systems. It involves applying engineering principles to software development to ensure that software is reliable, efficient, and meets user requirements.

Key areas in software engineering include:

1. Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC): This includes stages like requirement analysis, design, implementation, testing, deployment, and maintenance. Various models, such as Waterfall, Agile, and DevOps, guide how these stages are executed.
2. Requirements Engineering: Understanding and documenting what users need from a software system. This involves gathering requirements, analyzing them, and ensuring they are clear and feasible.
3. Design: Creating the architecture and design of the software, including high-level system architecture, database design, and user interface design. This phase often uses design patterns to solve common problems.
4. Coding: Writing the actual code based on design specifications. This requires proficiency in programming languages and an understanding of best practices for writing clean, maintainable code.
5. Testing: Ensuring the software works as intended through various testing methods such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing. This phase is crucial for identifying and fixing bugs.
6. Maintenance: Updating and refining software after deployment to fix issues, improve performance, or add new features. This phase often involves dealing with legacy code and adapting to new requirements.
7. Project Management: Managing the project using methodologies like Agile, Scrum, or Kanban to ensure that it is completed on time, within scope, and on budget. This involves planning, monitoring, and controlling various project aspects.
8. Software Quality Assurance (QA): Ensuring the software meets quality standards through processes like code reviews, automated testing, and adherence to coding standards.
9. User Experience (UX) and User Interface (UI) Design: Ensuring the software is user-friendly and meets the needs of its users. This involves designing intuitive interfaces and creating a positive overall experience.
10. Security: Implementing measures to protect software from vulnerabilities and attacks, ensuring that user data and system integrity are maintained.
11. Documentation: Creating and maintaining documentation for users, developers, and other stakeholders to ensure that the software is understandable and maintainable.

Software engineering draws on concepts and techniques from various fields such as computer science, mathematics, project management, and systems engineering. It is essential for building complex, reliable, and scalable software systems that power modern technology in diverse domains such as finance, healthcare, transportation, and entertainment.

CS301: Computer Architecture Exam Quiz Answers

Question 1: Time-sharing systems typically consist of which of the following? Select one:

• More than one program in memory
• More than one memory in the system
• More than one processor in the system
• More than two processors in the system

Question 2: When an instruction is read from program memory, where does the control unit route it to? Select one:

• The ALU
• Back to memory
• The program counters
• The instruction registers

Question 3: Where does a computer add and compare data? Select one:

• CPU chip
• Floppy disk
• Hard disk
• Memory chip

Question 4: For a future exascale computer, which of the following will the low-power processor most likely be modeled after? Select one:

• Apple’s iMacs
• IBM’s Watson
• Mobile devices
• Supercomputers

Question 5: Which of the following registers is used to keep track of the address of the memory location where the next instruction is located? Select one:

• Instruction Register
• Memory Data Register
• Memory Address Register
• Program Counter Register

Question 6: In this diagram, what would bits 4 and 5 in the instruction register need to be to route the data to the ALU?

Select one:

• 00
• 01
• 10
• 11

Question 7: What is the 2’s complement representation of -62? Select one:

• 00111110
• 11000001
• 11000010
• 11100010

Question 8: What is the binary representation of the integer 75? Select one:

• 01001010
• 01001011
• 01101010
• 11001111

Question 9: Consider the C program statement a = b + 10; and that the ADDI assembly language statement has the following format: 001000 | 5 bits rs | 5 bits rt | 16 bits. Suppose the variable b goes in register 3 and a in register 5. What binary code is loaded into program memory for this C program statement? Select one:

• 00010000011001010000000000000101
• 00010000011001010000000000001010
• 00100000011001010000000000000101
• 00100000011001010000000000001010

Question 10: Memory access in MIPS architecture is carried out using what instructions? Select one:

• ST and LD
• JR and BEQ
• ADD and SUB
• PUSH and POP

Question 11: Which of the following instructions belongs to an I-Format instruction type in a MIPS processor? Select one:

• add
• jr
• ld
• or

Question 12: What is the minimum sum of products expression, given this KMAP?

		ab
		00	01	11	10
cd	00	X	1		1
	01				X
	11				1
	10	1	1		X

Select one:

• b’d’ + a’b
• ab’ + a’d’
• d’ + ab’
• ac + a’bd’

Question 13: Which of the following is true for a 4-bit ripple carry adder? Select one:

• There are three stages
• There is a clock line going to each full adder
• The adder is slower than a carry looks ahead adder
• Extra gates are needed besides the full adder gates

Question 14: For this state machine, if we encode states S0 and S1 using a single bit, where 0 represents S0 and 1 represents S1, and we represent the inputs by a and b, then which of the following logic equations will be the state machine’s output?

Select one:

• [ab + a’b’] S’ + [a’b + ab’] S
• [ab + a’b] S’ + [a’b’ + ab’] S
• [a’b + a’b’] S’ + [ab + ab’] S
• [ab’ + a’b] S’ + [ a’b’ + ab] S

Question 15: Which of the following snippets of pseudocode can you use to find the quotient of a division, using a 4-bit hardware adder/subtractor? Select one:

• Loop a times {

b = b + b

} answer = b

• c = 0

Loop a times {

c = c + b

} answer = b

• Assume b > a

Loop n times {

b = b – a

if (b = 0) answer = n

if (b < 0) answer = n – 1

}

Assume b > a

• Loop n times {

b = b – a

if (b = 0) answer = 0

if (b < 0) answer = b + a

}

Question 16: If you use two half adders to build a full adder, which gates would you use? Select one:

• 1 XOR, 1 AND, 2 OR
• 1 XOR, 2 AND, 1 OR
• 2 XOR, 2 AND, 1 OR
• 2 XOR, 1 AND, 2 OR

Question 17: Which of the following can be the value of the program counter after fetching of an instruction in a MIPS processor? Select one:

• PC
• PC+4
• 2*PC
• 2*PC-1

Question 18: A data hazard is a situation where which of the following is true? Select one:

• One stage must wait for data from another stage in the pipeline
• The pipeline is not able to provide any speedup to execution time
• The next instruction is determined based on the results of the currently-executing instruction
• Hardware is unable to support the combination of instructions that should execute in the same clock cycle

Question 19: A structural hazard is a situation where which of the following is true? Select one:

• One stage must wait for data from another stage in the pipeline
• The pipeline is not able to provide any speedup to execution time
• The next instruction is determined based on the results of the currently-executing instruction
• Hardware is unable to support the combination of instructions that should execute in the same clock cycle

Question 20: 5f.1. Which of the following factors is most likely to limit the performance of a processor? Select one:

• Control hazard
• Static parallelism
• Dynamic parallelism
• Speculative execution

Question 21: One major advantage of direct mapping of a cache is that the mapping itself is very simple. What is the main disadvantage of this organization? Select one:

• It is more expensive than other types of cache organizations
• Its access time is greater than that of other cache organizations
• Its cache hit ratio is typically worse than with other organizations
• It does not allow simultaneous access to the intended data and its tag

Question 22: Assume that there is a direct-mapped cache of size 8 words. How many misses will there be, given the sequence of block addresses 0, 1, 0, 8, 1? Select one:

• 0
• 1
• 3
• 5

Question 23: When a page fault occurs, where does the missing page come from? Select one:

• A disk
• A cache
• The register files
• The main memory

Question 24: Which of the following holds the mapping of a virtual address to a physical address? Select one:

• Disk
• Cache
• Page table
• Virtual Memory

Question 25: What do we call interrupts that are initiated by an instruction? Select one:

• Asynchronous
• External
• Internal
• Synchronous

Question 26: Which of the following statements about a RAID 1 disk system is true? Select one:

• There are no redundant check disks
• The number of redundant check disks is equal to the number of data disks
• The number of redundant check disks is less than the number of data disks
• The number of redundant check disks is more than the number of data disks

Question 27: Which parallel programming API is most suitable for programming a Shared Memory Multiprocessor? Select one:

• C/C++
• MPI
• OpenMP
• Python

Question 28: According to Amdahl’s law, which of the following statements is true? Select one:

• There is no improvement in performance as the number of processors increase
• There is a diminishing improvement in performance as the number of processors increase
• There is an increasing improvement in performance as the number of processors increase
• There can be no more than a 5 times improvement in performance as the number of processors increase

Question 29: If we can speed up the parallel portion of a program by a factor of 3, and the parallel portion is approximately 50% of the total program, then how much more quickly will the program run? Select one:

• 1.5 times faster
• 1.67 times faster
• 2 times faster
• 3 times faster

Question 30: Which of the following do Shared Memory Multiprocessors (SMP) offer the programmer? Select one:

• Uniform memory access
• A single physical address space
• One physical address space per processor
• Multiple memories shared by multiprocessors

Question 31: Message-passing-based programming is more suitable for which of the following? Select one:

• SIMD Machines
• MIMD machines
• Shared Memory Multiprocessors
• Distributed Shared Memory Multiprocessors

Question 32: What is one of the reasons why It may not be possible to extract more instruction level parallelism from written code, thus making the switch to parallel processing a useful alternative? Select one:

• Most programs are too long
• The use of cache memory for data
• The use of cache memory for instructions
• Because of compiler limitations

Question 33: Which of the following descriptions for a Graphic Processing Unit (GPU) is true? Select one:

• It is a processor that has multiple levels of cache
• It is a processor that is efficient for all types of computing
• It is a special purpose processor only useful for graphics processing
• It is a processor used in all types of applications that involve data parallelism

Question 34: What is the binary representation of 52.75? Select one:

• 00101001.11
• 00110100.11
• 00110110.10
• 00111011.01

Question 35: In immediate addressing, where is the operand placed? Select one:

• In the stack
• In the memory
• In the CPU register
• After OP code in the instruction

Question 36: Which of the following expressions is equivalent to this logic gate structure? Select one:

• F = x + y’z
• F = xy’ + yz + xz
• F = xy + y’z + xz
• F = xy’z + xy’z’ + x’yz + x’yz

Question 37: Which two gates are used to build a half adder? Select one:

• AND, OR
• OR, NOT
• XOR, OR
• XOR, AND

Question 38: What circuitry, in addition to an adder, do you need to perform subtraction in hardware? Select one:

• AND gates and MUXes
• NOT gates and MUXes
• OR gates and DEMUXes
• XNOR gates and DECODERs

Question 39: If you build a full adder from two half adders, how many gates do you need? Select one:

• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5

Question 40: The MIPS instruction add $s0, $t0, $t1 followed by sub $t2, $s0, $t3 is likely to result in which of the following? Select one:

• A data hazards
• A memory faults
• A control hazards
• A structural hazard

Question 41: The MIPS instruction add $s0, $t0, $t1 followed by sub $t2, $s0, $t3 can be executed more efficiently through the use of which of the following? Select one:

• Value prediction
• Branch prediction
• Memory unit forwarding
• Execution unit forwarding

Question 42: Which of the following is a hardware method of increasing processor performance? Select one:

• Carry lookahead
• Branch prediction
• Register renaming
• Out of order execution

Question 43: Which of the following types of cache technology is most closely associated with superscalar processing? Select one:

• “Hit under miss”
• High associativity
• Multiported caches
• Segregated caches

Question 44: Which of the following is the correct order of elements in a memory hierarchy, from fastest to slowest times of access? Select one:

• Cache, Main Memory, Disk, Register
• Cache, Main Memory, Register, Disk
• Cache, Register, Main Memory, Disk
• Register, Cache, Main Memory, Disk

Question 45: Which of the following types of memory is flash storage? Select one:

• Cache memory
• Volatile memory
• Non-cache memory
• Non-volatile memory

Question 46: What is the maximum possible speedup achievable for a program with 50% sequential code? Select one:

• 2
• 4
• 16
• 32

Question 47: Why is synchronization needed in parallel programs? Select one:

• Threads may use local variables
• Threads may use private variables
• Threads may use shared variables
• Using a semaphore is not effective

Question 48: Which of the following is a key reason for the switch to parallel processing? Select one:

• Increase in speed of processor chips
• Increase in power density of the chip
• Increase in video and graphics processing
• Increase in cost of semiconductor manufacturing

Question 49: Which of the following is the best example of an application of cloud computing? Select one:

• Load balancing
• Grid computing
• Web search engine
• Scientific computing

Question 50: Which of the following is an example of a special purpose application of parallel computing? Select one:

• A Monte Carlo integration
• Any highly sequential program
• A C++ program with lots of for loops
• A program with fine-grained parallelism

Question 51: Moore’s Law explains that which of the following will double roughly every 18-24 months? Select one:

• Clock frequency
• Transistors on a chip
• Processors on a chip
• Chip power consumption

Question 52: What is the branch logic that provides decision-making capabilities in the control unit known as? Select one:

• Controlled transfer
• Conditional transfer
• Uncontrolled transfer
• Unconditional transfer

Question 53:  What is the hexadecimal representation of the integer 125? Select one:

• 6E
• 7D
• 8A
• B5

Question 54: Which of these numbers is in normalized form? Select one:

• 1.0× 10-9
• 10.0 × 10-9
• 100.00 × 10-9
• 1000.00 × 10-9

Question 55: What is a computer program that translates an entire program into machine language at one time called? Select one:

• Commander
• Compiler
• Interpreter
• Simulator

Question 56: Which of the following instructions belongs to a R-Format instruction type in a MIPS processor? Select one:

• add
• beq
• jr
• ld

Question 57: Which of the following most accurately describes the execution of a R-type instruction? Select one:

• Data memory and Register File take part
• Instruction memory and data memory take part
• Instruction memory, ALU, and register take part
• Instruction memory, Register File, ALU, and data memory take part

Question 58: Which of the following is the fastest member of the memory hierarchy? Select one:

• Cache
• Register
• Hard disk
• Main memory

Question 59: You want to calculate the performance (bandwidth) of the following busses. You have a synchronous bus with the following specifications: 60Mhz frequency, 16.7ns clock cycle (CK), sending address/data takes 1 CK each, and a 100ns memory access time. You also have an asynchronous with the following specifications: each handshake takes 30ns, with the same 100ns memory access time. Assume 4 bytes of data to be transferred across the bus. Which bus has better bandwidth? Select one:

• The synchronous bus is better: 20.1 vs. 15.3 MB/s
• The synchronous bus is better: 30 vs. 18.2 MB/s
• The asynchronous bus is better: 13.3 vs. 11.1 MB/s
• The asynchronous bus is better: 20.1 vs. 15.3 MB/s

Question 60: Which of the following statements about a RAID 4 system is true? Select one:

• RAID 4 does not use parity
• RAID 4 uses bit-interleaved parity
• RAID 4 uses block-interleaved parity
• RAID 4 uses distributed block-interleaved parity

Question 61: Which of the following statements about multithreading is true? Select one:

• Multiple threads are used in multiple cores
• Multiple threads are used in multiple processors
• Multiple threads share a single processor, but do not overlap
• Multiple threads share a single processor in an overlapping fashion

Question 62: According to Amdahl’s Law, as the number of processors increases, how does the execution time behave? Select one:

• It stays the same
• It decreases to zero
• It approaches the execution time of the sequential part of the code
• It approaches the execution time of the non-sequential part of the code

Question 63: For this state machine, what are the number of states, the number of inputs, and the number of outputs?

Select one:

• 1 state, 2 inputs, 2 outputs
• 2 states, 2 inputs, 1 output
• 3 states, 1 input, 2 outputs
• 3 states, 2 inputs, 1 output

Question 64: What does the phrase “dedicated computer” mean? Select one:

• A computer that is used by one person only
• A computer that runs only one kind of software
• A computer that is assigned to one and only one task
• A computer that is meant for application software only

Question 65: Which of the following semiconductor families was developed first? Select one:

• DTL
• PMOS
• RTL
• TTL

Question 66: What is the minimum sum of products expression, given this KMAP?

		ab
		00	01	11	10
cd	00	1			X
	01	1	1	X	1
	11
	10	1			1

Select one:

• cd’ + bd
• c’ + ab’
• c’d + b’d’
• ad + b’d’

Question 67: What is the minimum sum of products expression, given this truth table?

a	b	c	z
0	0	0	0
0	0	1	1
0	1	0	1
0	1	1	1
1	0	0	0
1	0	1	1
1	1	0	1
1	1	1	1

Select one:

• a + b
• b + c
• ac + b
• a’b + c

Question 68: Which of the following snippets of pseudocode can you use to find the remainder of a division, using a 4-bit hardware adder/subtractor? Select one:

• Loop a times {

b = b + b

} answer = b

• c = 0

Loop a times {

c = c + b

} answer = b

• Assume b > a

Loop n times {

b = b – a

if (b = 0) answer = n

if (b < 0) answer = n – 1

}

• Assume b > a

Loop n times {

b = b – a

if (b = 0) answer = 0

if (b < 0) answer = b + a

}

Question 69: What is the starting point for the execution of an instruction in a MIPS processor? Select one:

• The decoding of the instruction
• The reading of the program counter value
• The execution of operation using the ALU
• The fetching of the instruction from the instruction memory

Question 70: The CPU deals with each instruction in a cycle. The sequence of instructions to carry out one machine instruction is called the instruction or machine cycle. The first action is to fetch the instruction from memory and then the program counter is updated (reset). What are the other three phases of the machine cycle in the correct order? Select one:

• Decode the instruction; execute the instruction; transfer the data
• Decode the instruction; transfer the data; execute the instruction
• Execute the instruction; decode the instruction; transfer the data
• Transfer the data; execute the instruction; decode the instruction

Question 71: A control hazard is a situation where which of the following is true? Select one:

• One stage must wait for data from another stage in the pipeline
• The pipeline is not able to provide any speedup to execution time
• The next instruction is determined based on the results of the currently-executing instruction
• Hardware is unable to support the combination of instructions that should execute in the same clock cycle

Question 72: Which of the following software methods can be used to increase processor performance? Select one:

• Caching
• Pipelining
• Carry lookahead
• Branch prediction

Question 73: 5f.2. Which of the following factors is most likely to limit the performance of a processor? Select one:

• Pipelining
• Data hazard
• Concurrency
• Instruction level parallelism

Question 74: Which of the following does the valid bit in the cache indicate? Select one:

• The cache block number
• Whether there is a write-through or not
• Whether the requested word is in the cache or not
• Whether the cache entry contains a valid address or not

Question 75: When a cache miss occurs, where does the missing block of data come from? Select one:

• A disk
• A cache
• The register files
• The main memory

Question 76: The Translation-Lookaside Buffer (TLB) is related to the Page Table (PT) in the way that the ____ is related to the ____. Select one:

• Tape drive; PT
• PT; victim cache
• Dcache; Write buffer
• Dcache; Main memory

Question 77: You want to calculate the performance (bandwidth) of the following busses. You have a synchronous bus with the following specifications: 50Mhz frequency, 20ns clock cycle (CK), sending address/data takes 1 CK each, and a 120ns memory access time. You also have an asynchronous bus with the following specifications: each handshake takes 25ns, with the same 120ns memory access time. Assume 4 bytes of data to be transferred across the bus. Which bus has better bandwidth? Select one:

• The synchronous bus is better: 25 vs. 18.2 MB/s
• The synchronous bus is better: 30 vs. 25.2 MB/s
• The asynchronous bus is better: 13.3 vs. 11.1 MB/s
• The asynchronous bus is better: 30 vs. 25.2 MB/s

Question 78: You have a 32-bit synchronous bus with f = 200Mhz, 5ns clock cycle (CK), sending data/address takes 1 CK each, 2 CKs between bus operation, a memory access time of 200ns, bus transfer and reading next data overlap, and a block size of 8 words. What is the bandwidth for 256 4-byte words to be transferred over the bus? Select one:

• 100.2 MB/s
• 130.6 MB/s
• 150.8 MB/s
• 170.0 Mb/s

Question 79: What do we call interrupts that are initiated by an I/O drive? Select one:

• Asynchronous
• External
• Internal
• Synchronous

Question 80: Which of the following statements about a RAID 0 disk system is true? Select one:

• There are no redundant check disks
• The number of redundant check disks is equal to the number of data disks
• The number of redundant check disks is less than the number of data disks
• The number of redundant check disks is more than the number of data disks

Question 81: What is the maximum possible speedup achievable for a program with 75% sequential code? Select one:

• 1.3333
• 2
• 2.6666
• 8

Question 82: Gustafson’s law modifies Amdahl’s law with regard to which of the following factors? Select one:

• Weak scaling
• Timing issues
• Strong scaling
• Communication overhead

Question 83: Which of the following outlines the correct order that semiconductor families were developed, from earliest to latest? Select one:

• DTL RTL CMOS TTL
• DTL RTL TTL CMOS
• RTL DTL TTL CMOS
• RTL TTL DTL CMOS

Question 84: If you want to design a finite state machine that has n states and want to use one-shot encoding for the states, what is the number of bits required to encode the states? Select one:

• 1
• n
• log n
• 2n

Question 85: What is the final step in the fetch cycle of a MIPS processor? Select one:

• Decoding the instruction
• Reading the program counter value
• Executing the operation using the ALU
• Fetching the instruction from the instruction memory

Question 86: Which of the following updates the data values in the register file in a MIPS processor? Select one:

• The program counters
• The output of the ALU
• Data from data memory
• Decoding instructions from instruction memory

Question 87: Which of the following is the maximum possible speedup in a pipelined machine? Select one:

• The number of pipe stages
• 5 times that of a non-pipelined machine
• The ratio of the fetch cycle period to the clock period
• The ratio of time between instructions and clock cycle time

Question 88: The MIPS instruction lw $s0, 40($t1) followed by sub $t2, $s0, $t3 can be executed more efficiently through the use of which of the following? Select one:

• Value prediction
• Branch prediction
• Memory unit forwarding
• Execution unit forwarding

Question 89: You have a 32-bit synchronous bus with f = 200Mhz, 5ns clock cycle (CK), sending data/address takes 1 CK each, 2 CKs between bus operation, a memory access time of 200ns, bus transfer and reading next data overlap, and a block size of 32 words. What is the bandwidth for 256 4-byte words to be transferred over the bus? Select one:

• 131.0 MB/s
• 229.4 MB/s
• 327.9 MB/s
• 350.1 MB/s

Question 90: Which of the following is an example of a special purpose application of parallel computing? Select one:

• Ranking a linked list
• A matrix multiplication
• Any highly sequential program
• A program with fine-grained parallelism

Introduction to Computer Architecture

Computer architecture is a fascinating and crucial field in computer science and engineering that deals with the design and organization of computer systems. It encompasses various aspects, including the following:

1. Instruction Set Architecture (ISA): This defines the set of instructions that a computer’s CPU can execute. It includes the CPU’s registers, data types, instructions, and addressing modes. Examples include x86, ARM, and MIPS.
2. Microarchitecture: This refers to the implementation of the ISA. It involves the design of the CPU’s internal structure, including the arithmetic logic unit (ALU), registers, cache, and pipelines. It’s about how the ISA is realized in hardware.
3. Memory Hierarchy: This involves the design of various types of memory used in a computer system, such as registers, cache (L1, L2, L3), RAM (main memory), and storage (hard drives, SSDs). The goal is to balance speed, cost, and capacity.
4. Processor Design: This includes various techniques to improve CPU performance, such as pipelining, superscalar execution, out-of-order execution, and branch prediction. It also involves the design of multi-core processors and the coordination between multiple cores.
5. Input/Output Systems: This covers how a computer interacts with external devices like keyboards, mice, printers, and network interfaces. It involves understanding bus architectures, I/O ports, and data transfer protocols.
6. System Design: This encompasses the overall organization of a computer system, including the integration of the CPU, memory, and I/O components. It also includes considerations for system performance, reliability, and scalability.
7. Parallel and Distributed Computing: This deals with architectures designed to execute multiple processes simultaneously, either within a single machine (multi-core processors) or across a network of machines (clusters, grids, or cloud computing).
8. Performance Metrics: Understanding and improving performance involves metrics like clock speed, instructions per cycle (IPC), and throughput. Techniques such as benchmarking and profiling are used to evaluate and optimize system performance.
9. Power and Thermal Management: As computers become more powerful, managing power consumption and heat generation becomes crucial. Techniques include dynamic voltage and frequency scaling (DVFS) and advanced cooling solutions.
10. Security: Modern computer architecture must consider security at various levels, including secure boot mechanisms, trusted execution environments (TEEs), and protection against side-channel attacks.

Computer architects strive to design systems that balance performance, power efficiency, cost, and other factors to meet the requirements of specific applications and use cases. They often use simulation, modeling, and performance analysis techniques to evaluate design choices and optimize system performance.