Certification

Pinterest Advertising Essentials Exam Quiz Answers

Question 1: Drag and drop the tile to match the brand lift study with the correct description.

Use pre-determined sequence pairings of questions to ask Pinterest users who have seen your ad and Pinterest users who have not.	2Q Pinterest Brand Lift
A third-party vendor study polls Pinterest users in-app and then calculates the incremental effect of the ads on brand metrics.	Kantar brand lift
Customize survey questions to ask Pinterest users who have seen your ad and Pinterest users who have not.	6Q Pinterest Brand Lift

Question 2: When is the best time to consider brand lift solutions?

• After using Pinterest conversion lift to measure the value of an ad on Pinterest.
• After analyzing platform reported metrics within Ads Manager.
• After uploading offline data.
• When you want to measure holistic brand perception (creative + messaging + media).

Question 3: Which of the following are true about expanded targeting?

• With expanded targeting, advertisers can increase their reach by allowing Pinterest to build off of the keywords and interests originally added to the ad group.
• If there is no targeting selected (i.e. no interests or keywords) using expanded targeting will narrow targeting.
• Expanded targeting requires the advertiser to upload targeting datasets to customize the target group.
• Expanded targeting augments advertisers’ existing targeting strategy in just one click.

Question 4: Drag and drop the tiles below to place the steps for building a campaign in Ads Manager in the right order. The first step on top and the last step at the bottom.

• Log into your Pinterest business account.
• Click “Create campaign”.
• Select campaign objective.
• Enter campaign, ad group, & ad details.
• Publish campaign.

Question 5: Within Ads Manager advertisers can edit live campaigns to optimize performance by modifying targeting details, changing bids, and adjusting spend.

• True
• False

Question 6: Which of the following are examples of Pinterest tag tracked data?

• Visits to the advertiser’s website.
• Views of primary pages, such as product pages and article pages.
• Sign-ups for products and/or services.
• Leads (interest around products and/or services.
• All the above.

Question 7: Which of the following are insights an advertiser could see only after implementing the Pinterest tag?

• When a Pinterest user visited the sale items on the advertiser’s product page.
• The product details (such as product color or size) that a Pinterest user added to their online shopping cart.
• How many days it took a user to complete a purchase since seeing an ad on Pinterest.
• All the above.

Question 8: If an advertiser lowers a custom bid, Pinterest may still surpass that bid value in the next auction.

• True
• False

Question 9: Pinterest ranks ad interactions to award an attribution for a conversion event. Place these three ad interactions in order from highest ranked (top) to lowest ranked (bottom).

• Click attribution
• Engagement attribution
• View attribution

Question 10: Given the attribution window of 30/20/1, what do each of those numbers represent? Match the number with the correct description.

The number of days the user has after they engage with the ad in order for the ad to get credit for the conversion.	20
The number of days the user has after they view the ad in order for the ad to get credit for the conversion.	1
The number of days the user has after they click the ad in order for the ad to get credit for the conversion.	30

Question 11: True or False: Pinterest recommends users leverage the Pinterest API for Conversion in combination with the Pinterest tag.

• True
• False

Question 12: Fill in the blank. To access technical documentation about how to implement the Pinterest API, you should visit the _________.

• Developer platform
• Pinterest Business platform
• Pinterest.com homepage
• Pinterest Academy platform

Question 13: When a Pinterest user clicks on a pin on a mobile phone, they are taken _______.

• To a “closeup” view of the ad to see the content in full-screen view.
• Directly to the brand’s website.
• A Pinterest platform menu asking them if they would like to save it to a board.
• None of the above.

Question 14: Video ads can influence which of the following metrics?

• CPM
• CPV
• CPC
• All the above

Question 15: When should an advertiser use a catalog sales campaign?

• When a brand wants their ads to be seen to drive awareness for their brand, products, or services.
• When brands want to prioritize video view goals around longer views.
• When a brand wants to get in front of undecided shoppers and build demand for the brand.
• When a brand wants to get their product catalog in front of an audience who are actively searching for things and have an intent to buy.

Question 16: When should an advertiser use a brand awareness campaign?

• When a brand wants their ads to be seen to drive awareness for their brand, products, or services.
• When brands want to prioritize video view goals around longer views.
• When a brand wants to get in front of undecided shoppers and build demand for the brand.
• When a brand wants to measure online actions that go beyond just a click such as an online sale.

Question 17: On Pinterest, users save ideas to boards in the form of ___.

• Pins
• Tiles
• Posts
• Idea cards

Question 18: According to a 2021 study, shoppers on Pinterest spend 2x more than shoppers on other platforms.

• True
• False

Question 19: Which of the following influences the Pinterest auction system?

• Creative
• Bids
• Targeting
• None of the above
• All of the above

Question 20: Pinterest only allows interest targeting to be served on the Browse and Home feed pages. Interest targeting will never appear on the Search landing page.

• True
• False

Question 21: For manual implementation of the Pinterest tag, advertisers have to add the base code to every page of your website so that event codes can function to accurately measure that event.

• True
• False

Question 22: Drag and drop the tiles to match the Ads Manager component with the best definition.

Campaign Objective	Aligned to real business objectives based on what results you are looking to achieve. Selection type within Ads Manager affects settings like targeting, bidding and available ad formats.
Campaign	Allows you to select a campaign objective and set your budget.
Ads	The promoted Pins people see that have their own unique URL and creative asset.
Ad groups	Determines your targeting and bidding strategy

Question 23: Which of the following are true about multi-objective campaigns?

• Multi-objective campaigns enable advertisers to connect the dots with their audience amidst multiple touch-points.
• Multi-objective campaigns help advertisers’ brand stay relevant and top of mind in important moments from discovery to decision to do.
• Multi-objective campaigns create compounding effects that lead to stronger results in every stage of the funnel.
• All the above.

Question 24: Over _____ million people all over the world use Pinterest every month.

• 100
• 200
• 300
• 400

Question 25: Drag and drop the tiles below to match the user action with the correct component of the reporting U.I. within Ads Manager.

Select a predefined date range or customize a specific date range within the last 25 months.	1
Select a conversion window, date and source.	3
Select different dashboard views.	4
Select one or more campaign objectives to view.	2

Question 26: Advertisers can create “actalike” audiences by selecting an existing audience and allowing Pinterest to create similar audiences based on people’s behavior patterns.

• True
• False

Question 27: _____ formats feature a product details page, which allows brands to share more details on their story, such as ingredients, step by step instructions, and more.

• Standard ad
• Idea ad
• Carousel ad
• Video ad

Question 28: What type of ad format did the advertiser use to design the ad below?

• Standard ad
• Idea ad
• Carousel ad
• Collections ad

Question 29: In the scenario where a user viewed and saved an ad within the defined attribution window, which user behavior would be awarded the attribution for the conversion event?

• View
• Save
• Neither

Question 30: The ___________ feature in Ads Manager enables you to run the same campaign at two different times over the holiday season.

• Duplication
• Export
• Reporting Table
• Multi-campaign

Question 31: When should an advertiser use a consideration campaign?

• When a brand wants their ads to be seen to drive awareness for their brand, products, or services.
• When brands want to prioritize video view goals around longer views.
• When a brand wants to get in front of undecided shoppers and build demand for the brand.
• When a brand wants to measure online actions that go beyond just a click such as an online sale.

Question 32: Which custom reporting solution would you choose to run the report and have the report emailed to you or anyone else?

• Report template with schedule
• Report template
• One-time custom report
• Rapid report

Question 33: Drag and drop the tiles below to match the attribution model name with the correct definition.

Linear	Equal credit is given to each touchpoint along the way.
First click	100% of credit is given to the first exposure.
Position-based	Increased credit is given to the first and last touchpoints and the remaining credit is distributed equally.
Last click	100% of the credit for a conversion to the last clicked ad and corresponding keyword (if relevant).

Question 34: Which of the following are requirements for an ad to enter the Pinterest ad serving system to be considered for auction?

• Budget pacing
• Target specifications
• Predicted performance
• All the above

Question 35: Which of the following are true about attribution windows?

• Pinterest audiences tend to take slightly longer to convert which means the advertiser’s attribution window on Pinterest may be longer than on other platforms.
• Pinterest recommends that advertisers who are pulling data by the date of the ad event, wait until the attribution window has run after the last date of the campaign.
• Attribution windows may vary by conversion event type as well as ad interaction type.
• All the above.

Question 36: True or False? To test your implementation, your developer begins by sending test pings to the API with several event samples.

• True
• False

Question 37: Where in the Pinterest Business platform can you check to see that deduplication was set up correctly?

• Ads > Conversions
• Ads > Billing
• Ads > Reporting
• Ads > Bulk editor

Question 38: Studies have found that consumers are more likely to ___ brands they see in a positive environment.

• Remember
• Feel positive about
• Trust
• Purchase
• All of the above

Question 39: Match the Ads Manager reporting feature with the best description.

Tables	Provide a view of your advertising strategy across entities including the campaign, ad group, and ad level.
Graphs	Let you visualize performance across a specific time period.
Filters	Allow you to analyze the data according to the metrics that are most important to you.

Question 40: How would an advertiser set a bid for a conversion campaign?

• Set a maximum CPM (cost per mille) bid, or the maximum you’re willing to pay for every 1,000 impressions your ad serves.
• Set a custom CPC (cost per click), using the maximum you’re willing to pay for a click.
• Set a custom or automatic CPA (cost per action), when people click through your ad to your website.
• None of the above.

Question 41: Which of the following are true about the Pinterest API for Conversions?

• Captures data that the tag may miss due to connectivity issues, loading errors and loss of cookie support.
• Sends conversions directly to Pinterest in real-time via a server-to-server API endpoint.
• Reduces the possibility of human error (Compared to Ads Manager upload).
• All the above.

Question 42: Which of the following are options for where your ads can appear on Pinterest?

• Search
• Side bar
• Browse
• None of the above

Question 43: Drag and drop the tiles to match the solution with the correct description.

Sales Lift Studies	Measure in-store and online sales lift from Pinterest campaigns with third-party vendors.
Pinterest Conversion Lift	Measure incremental conversions, related value and efficiency metrics for ad viewers.
The Pinterest API for Conversions	Send web, in-app, or offline conversions in real-time via a server-to-server API endpoint.

Question 44: ____ are managed by Pinterest dynamically instead of by you, and are updated several times a day.

• Automatic bids
• Custom bids
• All of the above

Question 45: Drag and drop to match the term with the correct description.

Interest targeting	Define your audience based on the Pins people engage with.
Keyword match	Reach Pinterest users who have searched for a specific word or phrase on Pinterest.
Demographics	Narrow your targeting based on demographic features about Pinterest users.
Expanded targeting	Automatically and intelligently connects an ad to more of the audience you’re trying to reach.

Question 46: Which of the following are true about Enhanced Match?

• Reports based on the cookies on a user’s phone, desktop, or tablet or the email address entered on the Advertiser’s website.
• Only available for cross device data collection for iOS devices.
• Automatically and securely sends hashed customer information beyond emails.
• All of the above.

Question 47: When a Pinterest user clicks on a pin on a desktop, they are taken _______.

• To a “closeup” view of the ad to see the content in full-screen view.
• Directly to the brand’s website.
• To a Pinterest platform menu asking them if they would like to save it to a board.
• None of the above.

Question 48: Which of the following Conversion Visibility solutions support visibility of both web and app data? Select all that apply.

• Pinterest tag
• Pinterest tag + Automated Enhanced Match
• Conversion Upload
• API for Conversions

Introduction to Pinterest Advertising Essentials

Diving into Pinterest advertising essentials involves understanding its unique platform dynamics and how to leverage them for effective campaigns:

1. Visual Appeal: Pinterest is all about inspiring visuals. Ensure your pins are high-quality, visually appealing, and aligned with your brand’s aesthetics.
2. Keyword Optimization: Use relevant keywords in your pin descriptions, titles, and hashtags. Pinterest is also a search engine, so optimizing for search can improve visibility.
3. Rich Pins: These provide additional context directly on the pin itself (like product details or recipe ingredients). Enable them to enhance engagement.
4. Audience Targeting: Utilize Pinterest’s targeting options such as interests, demographics, and behaviors to reach your ideal audience effectively.
5. Promoted Pins: Boost the visibility of your pins through paid advertising. Set clear objectives (like brand awareness or traffic) and monitor performance closely.
6. Content Strategy: Plan your content calendar to align with seasonal trends, holidays, and popular topics on Pinterest. Timeliness can increase engagement.
7. Engagement and Analytics: Monitor metrics like impressions, clicks, and saves to gauge the success of your campaigns. Adjust strategies based on performance data.
8. Call-to-Action (CTA): Encourage users to take action by including clear CTAs on your pins, directing them to your website, product page, or blog.
9. Mobile Optimization: Given Pinterest’s mobile-first user base, ensure your pins and landing pages are optimized for mobile devices to improve user experience.
10. Testing and Iteration: Continuously test different pin formats, images, headlines, and targeting options to refine your strategy and maximize ROI.

By focusing on these essentials, you can effectively utilize Pinterest as a powerful platform for advertising and reaching your target audience with engaging visual content.

Android Enterprise Professional Exam Answers

I. Section.​Android​ Enterprise Academy Professional

Step 2: Android Enterprise Professional Pre-Assessment

Question 1: Google recommends which of the following methods to securely manage, deploy or host in-house company applications?

• Sideloading
• Android admin console
• Zero Touch Portal
• Managed Google Play Store

Question 2: Restricting applications from communicating directly to each other is an example of what Android security principle:

• Verified Boot
• Safety Net
• Application Sandboxing
• Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR)

Question 3: The identity method that is preferred for G-Suite customers:

• Managed Google Play Account
• Managed Google Account
• EMM Enhanced Account
• Gmail Account

Question 4: The following enrollment methods are supported with Android Enterprise:

• NFC
• QR Code
• Zero-Touch
• All of the above

Question 5: Using Android Enterprise versus Device Admin (DA) is recommended for all deployments going forward because:

• Device Admin API’s have been marked deprecated and will eventually not be supported
• Device Admin APIs provided an outdated security model and management approach
• Android Enterprise offers a modern management framework with enterprise APIs and secure app deployment via managed Google Play.
• All of the above

II. Section.​Android Enterprise Academy Professional Courses

Step 4: Security

Lesson 6 Quiz:

Question 1: Google Play Protect includes: (select all that apply)

• Real-time malware detection
• Daily scan of apps on devices
• Blocking of harmful apps

Question 2: __________________ ensures key generation, key import, signing and verification services are kept separate from the OS. ​(fill in the blank)

Trusted Execution Environment (TEE)

Question 3: Hardware-backed security does which of the following? (select all that apply)

• Mitigates exploitation
• Prevents brute force attacks
• Protects the boot process
• Keeps data safe from physical attacks

Step 5: Managed Google Play

Lesson 8 Quiz:

Question 1: With Managed Google Play, you can: (select all that apply)

• Manage and configure apps
• Host and publish internal apps
• Distribute and purchase apps

Question 2: ‘Sideloading’ is the #1 risk for introducing malware and PHAs onto your device.

• True
• False

Question 3: The advantages of hosting private apps on Google Play include: (select all that apply)

• Easy administration
• Security
• Reliability

Step 6: Deployment

Lesson 7 Quiz:

Question 1: Question 1: COPE devices provide: (select all that apply)

• Flexibility of using full device management with a work profile

Question 2: __________________ enables large-scale Android deployments across multiple device makers with no manual set up. (fill in the blank)

• EMM token
• Zero-touch
• QR code

Question 3: The feature that gives IT control over company data while allowing workers to keep their pictures and apps private is called:

• Android profiles
• Zero-touch
• Work profile
• Managed Google Play

Step 7: Deployment Best Practices

Question 1: In order to gain user buy in for work profiles, explain to users that IT cannot monitor ____________ . ​(select all that apply)

• Call logs
• Personal photos
• Personal app installs
• SMS

Question 2: True or false: During deployment planning, determine scope of testing and timelines for different stages of the deployment.

• True
• False

Question 3: _____________ establishes best practices and common requirements for devices and services, backed by a thorough testing process conducted by Google.

• Android Enterprise Recommended

Android Enterprise Professional Final Exam Answers

Question 1: The newest enrollment method with the launch of __________ is ___________:

• Android P, Fast Touch
• Android O, Zero Touch
• Android N, Easy Scale
• Android M, Managed Deployment

Question 2: As users are the first line of defense against any mobile threat, EMM’s can employ policies that can force:

• Verified Boot
• Strong PIN, pattern or password lock
• Continuous SMS and call monitoring
• Passphrase to recover lost email accounts

Question 3: ________________ can add IMEI or serial numbers to the Zero Touch portal?

• End-Users
• Resellers
• Resellers and carrier partners
• Customers

Question 4: Using Android Enterprise versus Device Admin (DA) is recommended for all deployments going forward because:

• Device Admin API’s have been marked deprecated and will eventually not be supported
• Device Admin APIs provided an outdated security model and management approach
• Android Enterprise offers a modern management framework with enterprise APIs and secure app deployment via managed Google Play.
• All of the above

Question 5: ___________ is a collection of Google applications and APIs that help support functionality across devices and a requirement for Android Enterprise.

• Android Managed Services (AMS)
• Google Mobile Services (GMS)
• Android Compatibility Services (ACS)
• Compatibility Test Suite (CTS)

Question 6: The identity method that is preferred for G-Suite customers is referred to as:

• Managed Google Play Account & Gmail
• Managed Google Account
• EMM Enhanced Account
• Gmail

Question 7: To make Android even safer, Google shares source code for security fixes every ______ days with partners and publish updates for Nexus and Pixel devices.

• 30
• 90
• 180
• Dessert release

Question 8: As it pertains to shared device use cases, support for _____________ was added in Android Pie (9.0) kiosk mode.

• Work profile
• Multiple containers
• Multiple Apps
• Multiple DPC’s

Question 9: Google Play Protect scans ___________ apps that are installed onto a device:

• Only Google Play store
• All
• Only sideloaded
• Third party

Question 10: All Android OEM’s that opt to use Google Mobile Services (GMS) must adhere to a _________ and successfully pass ____________.

• Compatibility Definition Document (CDD), Compatibility Test Suite (CTS)
• Compatibility Definition Document (CDD), Android Test Suite (ATS)
• Enterprise Recommended Document (ERD) and Compatibility Test Suite (CTS) Compatibility Definition Document (CDD), Android Device Test (ADT) Compatibility Definition Document (CDD), Android Device Test (ADT)

Question 11: Android Enterprise Recommended ensures devices are up to date with regular security patches delivered within _________. Android Enterprise Recommended devices are also guaranteed to get at least ______________.

• 45 days, 2 additional major OS updates
• 90 days, 1 additional major OS update
• 60 days, 1 additional major OS update
• 90 days, 2 additional major OS updates

Question 12: How many Managed Google Play accounts can a customer get for free from Google for use with their EMM?

• As many as needed
• 5
• 20
• 35

Question 13: Please select the most accurate statement as it pertains to Managed Google Play accounts:

• Managed Google Play accounts are quick and easy to claim and require organizations to register their actual name with Google
• Managed Google Play accounts are easy to claim but require a 1-week approval period from Google
• Managed Google Play accounts are quick and easy to attain obfuscated identities that can be claimed for as many users as needed
• Manage Google Play accounts provide end users with identities that allows them to sign in to Google services such as G-Suite

Question 14: Some of the advantages of hosting private apps on Managed Google Play are:

• Application scanning, delta upgrades, free app hosting
• Security, cross platform application support and competitive pricing
• Security, easy administration and being able to host apps from any platform
• Hosting private apps on Google Play is not recommended

Question 15: The following enrollment methods are supported with Android Enterprise:

• NFC
• QR Code
• Zero-Touch
• All of the above

Question 16: Google recommends which of the following methods to securely manage, deploy or host in-house company applications?

• Sideloading
• Android admin console
• Zero Touch Portal
• Managed Google Play Store

Question 17: Devices with a work profile differentiate work apps from personal apps by a:

• Badged hashtag
• Badged dot
• Badged star
• Badged briefcase

Question 18: Restricting applications from communicating directly to each other is an example of what Android security principle:

• Verified Boot
• Safety Net
• Application Sandboxing
• Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR)

Question 19: What are the are two identities that can be used with Android Enterprise?

• Managed Google Play Account & Gmail
• Gmail & Managed Google Account
• Managed Google Account & Managed Google Play Account
• Managed EMM Account

Question 20: What is the proper method a user should follow in order to add a work profile to their personal device?

• Clear all personal data from device, download EMM app from Play Store, follow the setup wizard to complete.
• Download EMM app from Google Play, enter corporate credentials, follow the setup wizard to complete.
• Hard reset the device, send it into IT department for set up, retrieve device when ready.
• Enroll device in Zero Touch portal, inform IT so they can configure, follow the setup wizard.

Question 21: Before deploying Android in a no connectivity environment, you should strongly consider:

• Android Enterprise devices must be able to access the Managed Google Play store to get apps and updates, and Google Play Protect security services.
• Android Enterprise devices require special permissions and policies to run in such environments
• The devices running in these environments must be running Android Oreo (8.0) or higher
• None of the above

Question 22: Android devices utilize a __________, to run privileged or security-sensitive operations such as PIN verification, secure storage of encryption keys and Verified Boot.

• Tamper Resistant Zone
• Trusted Execution Environment
• Trusted Encryption Zone
• Secure Execution Environment

Question 23: During the ____________ process, each bootstage cryptographically verifies the integrity and authenticity of the next stage before executing it.

• Verified Boot
• Kernel checking
• Hash tagging
• System check

Question 24: When enrolling devices using the NFC method, organizations can use __________ to transfer configurations to a new device:

• Either a pre-programmed master device or NFC tag
• A pre-programmed master device
• Only a pre-programmed NFC tag
• Android Enterprise does not support NFC enrollment

Question 25: Managed Google Play provides organizations complete control over app visibility and distribution by:

• Allowing whitelisting and silent app push
• Providing application user data to admins
• Easy sideloading of select apps
• Making full Google Play store available to all user

Introduction to Android Enterprise Professional

“Android Enterprise Professional” typically refers to a certification program offered by Google for individuals who specialize in deploying and managing Android devices in enterprise environments. Professionals who earn this certification demonstrate proficiency in configuring, deploying, and managing Android devices and services securely and efficiently within organizations.

Key areas covered by the Android Enterprise Professional certification may include:

1. Android Enterprise Overview: Understanding the different deployment scenarios and management options available through Android Enterprise.
2. Deployment: Knowledge of configuring Android devices for enterprise use, including enrollment methods such as zero-touch enrollment.
3. Management: Skills in managing Android devices, apps, and policies using enterprise mobility management (EMM) solutions.
4. Security: Understanding Android security features and best practices for securing devices and data in enterprise settings.
5. Support: Ability to troubleshoot and support Android devices and deployments in enterprise environments.

Earning the Android Enterprise Professional certification typically involves passing an exam that tests knowledge and practical skills related to these areas. It is recognized as a validation of expertise in implementing Android solutions tailored for business and enterprise use cases.

Android Enterprise Platform Associate Certification Exam Answers

I. Section.​Android Enterprise Knowledge Check

Step 2: Android Enterprise Associate Pre-Assessment

Question 1: On personally owned Android devices featuring Android (5.0+) what feature does a “Work Profile” provide?

• Allow IT Admins full access to your personal device and managed security settings.
• Allow IT Admins to fully wipe data on your entire device and enforce enterprise security.
• Create a company owned profile that manages all data on the device.
• Create a company managed work profile to keep all your work and personal data

Question 2: Which of the following statements is true as it pertains to device management with Android Enterprise?

• Android Enterprise supports management modes for company-owned devices only and should be used in strict lock-down scenarios.
• Android Enterprise offers a management option for any ownership or deployment model: from work profile, strict lock‑down devices to single‑use scenarios.
• Android Enterprise should not be used on personal devices and is recommended for company-owned devices only.
• Android Enterprise makes it easy to switch between fully managed and work profile modes without the need to re-enroll devices.

Question 3: What are the four layers of security that keep Android devices safe?

• A multi-layered approach from hardware, OS, management APIs and Google services such as Google Play Protect
• A multi-layered approach from Android Security Suite, management API’s, hardware and Google services such as Google Play Protect
• Anti-virus applications, network traffic monitoring tools, strict policy control and OEM security suite
• A multi-layered approach from hardware, anti-virus applications, Android Security Suite and Google services such as Google Play Protect

Question 4: Which Google led and validated program makes it simple for businesses to confidently select, deploy and manage Android devices and services that meet elevated enterprise requirements?

• Android for Work
• Android Device Admin
• Android Enterprise Recommended
• Android Device Suite

Question 5: What is Android Enterprise?

• A secure and comprehensive way of managing any Android device and OS version.
• Comprehensive and modern mobile OS platform providing extensive management API’s for large scale enterprises.
• A platform with a limited number of management API’s and services, providing legacy control methods.
• A modern management framework with robust enterprise APIs and secure app deployment via managed Google Play.

II. Section.​Android Enterprise Sales Courses

Lesson 3 Quiz:

Step 4: Android Security

Question 1: How many devices does Google Play Protect scan every day?

• 1 million
• 5 million
• 1 billion
• 2 billion

Question 2: Which of the following is NOT a security feature of the Android platform?

• Security check-up
• App isolation
• Kernel hardening
• Verified Boot

Question 3: What percentage of Android devices using Google Play are free of potentially harmful apps?

• 90%
• 99%
• 99.95%
• 95%

Step 5: Android Management

Question 1: With Managed Google Play, you can: (select all that apply)

• Manage and configure apps
• Host and publish internal apps
• Distribute and purchase apps

Question 2: __________________ enables large-scale Android deployments across multiple device makers with no manual set up. (fill in the blank)

• EMM token
• Zero-touch
• QR code

Question 3: On personally owned Android devices running Android (5.0+), what features do a “Work Profile” provide?

• Allow IT Admins full access to your personal device and managed security settings.
• Allow IT Admins to fully wipe data on your entire device and enforce enterprise security.
• Create a company owned profile that manages all data on the device.
• Create a company managed work profile to keep all your work and personal data separate.

Android Enterprise Platform Associate Final Exam Answers

Question 1: Device Admin API’s should be used for deployments when:

• You need to deploy Android devices very quickly using Zero Touch
• Device Admin APIs should not be used going forward as they are being deprecated
• When companies require granular device management via policy inside EMM consoles
• When you require access to the Managed Play to manage and deploy apps at scale

Question 2: On personally owned Android devices featuring Android (5.0+) what feature does a “Work Profile” provide?

• Allow IT Admins full access to your personal device and managed security settings.
• Allow IT Admins to fully wipe data on your entire device and enforce enterprise security.
• Create a company owned profile that manages all data on the device.
• Create a company managed work profile to keep all your work and personal data

Question 3: What feature of the Android platform protects 99.99% of devices from potentially harmful applications?

• Android OS
• Google Play Protect
• Google Protection
• Android Virus Scan

Question 4: ___________ enrollment enables large scale over the air bulk Android (8.0+) deployments across multiple device makers so organizations can mobilize their employees with ease and no manual setup.

• NFC
• QR code
• Zero-touch
• EMM token

Question 5: What is Android Enterprise?

• A secure and comprehensive way of managing any Android device and OS version.
• Comprehensive and modern mobile OS platform providing extensive management API’s for large scale enterprises.
• A platform with a limited number of management API’s and services, providing legacy control methods.
• A modern management framework with robust enterprise APIs and secure app deployment via managed Google Play.

Question 6: The Managed Google Play store allows IT admins to:

• Easily monitor user SMS and call logs, allow app hosting and daily security scans Manage and combine 3rd party app stores into one single source
• Whitelist apps for easy deployment, allow silent app installs and private app hosting
• Provide a company intranet where important information and documents can be hosted

Question 7: Which of the following statements is true pertaining to company-owned, fully managed device enrollment:

• To enroll a device in a fully managed state, devices must be enrolled from a fresh out of the box state.
• Devices that have previously been through out of box setup can be enrolled over the air.
• EMM apps can be downloaded from Google Play to enroll a device in a fully managed state.
• Corporate owned fully managed devices can only be enrolled on premise by company IT.

Question 8: Which Google led and validated program makes it simple for businesses to confidently select, deploy and manage Android devices and services that meet elevated enterprise requirements?

• Android for Work
• Android Device Admin
• Android Enterprise Recommended
• Android Device Suite

Question 9: What are the four layers of security that keep Android devices safe?

• A multi-layered approach from hardware, OS, management APIs and Google services such as Google Play Protect
• A multi-layered approach from Android Security Suite, management API’s, hardware and Google services such as Google Play Protect
• Anti-virus applications, network traffic monitoring tools, strict policy control and OEM security suite
• A multi-layered approach from hardware, anti-virus applications, Android Security Suite and Google services such as Google Play Protect

Question 10: Which of the following statements is true as it pertains to device management with Android Enterprise?

• Android Enterprise supports management modes for company-owned devices only and should be used in strict lock-down scenarios.
• Android Enterprise offers a management option for any ownership or deployment model: from work profile, strict lock‑down devices to single‑use scenarios.
• Android Enterprise should not be used on personal devices and is recommended for company-owned devices only.
• Android Enterprise makes it easy to switch between fully managed and work profile modes without the need to re-enroll devices.

Question 11: What are the key selling points regarding Android Enterprise?

• Comprehensive and innovative mobile OS platform providing extensive management API’s, multi-layer device and app security, and a global infrastructure for secure app distribution.
• Comprehensive and innovative management with powerful security built-in and devices for every business.
• A full solution to deploy your apps securely and manage employee devices.
• A platform with a limited number of devices and services, providing ultimate control and scalability.

Question 12: What percentage of Android phones are free of potentially harmful apps?

• 99%
• 99.95%
• 95%
• 90%

Question 13: What feature of Android intercepts malware threats in real time?

• Google Protection Services
• Google Play Protect
• Google Scan
• Google Anti-Virus

Question 14: With an Android enterprise work profile you can:

• Allow full access to IT Admins on your personal device
• Fully protect your work data on your device
• Create a company managed “Work Only” profile that manages all data on the device
• Create a company managed “Work Only” profile to keep all personal data separate.

Question 15: The feature that gives IT control over company data while allowing workers to keep their pictures and apps private is called:

• Android profiles
• Zero-touch
• Work profile
• Managed Google Play

Question 16: What are the key selling points regarding Android for enterprise?

• A platform with a limited number of devices and services, providing ultimate control and scalability.
• Comprehensive and innovative management with powerful security built-in and devices for every business.
• A full solution to deploy your apps securely and manage employee devices.
• Comprehensive and innovative mobile OS platform providing extensive management API’s, multi-layer device and app security, and a global infrastructure for secure app distribution.

Question 17: Which deployment option allows for bulk company owned devices to be deployed without individual set-up?

• QR code
• NFC
• Zero-touch
• EMM token

Question 18: Which of the following is true for work applications in the Android for Work profile?

• They are private when you need them to be from the IT department.
• They are in 1 work folder and cannot be moved.
• They are marked by a distinct orange briefcase icon.
• They cannot be deleted or installed by the user.

Question 19: A managed version of the Google Play store for your business allows an organization to:

• Monitor all device activity
• Control all device activity
• Have control over app usage with an intuitive experience for all employees
• Whitelist apps for easy deployment

Question 20: Android platform security keeps your devices, data and apps secure through:

• Application sandboxing, exploit mitigation and device encryption.
• Powerful antivirus applications that constantly monitor device threats.
• Forcing a new device password every 30 days.
• Giving IT admins full view into what a user’s active device.

Question 21: What percentage of Android phones using Google Play are free of potentially harmful apps?

• 90%
• 99%
• 99.95%
• 95%

Question 22: What Android feature are customers most attracted to? (Will Not Count Towards Score)

• Shareability of devices between employees.
• Speed of boot up time and system performance.
• Simplicity of deployment and the Google Management Console.
• Security of built in virus protection, automatic updates and hardware encryption.

Introduction to Android Enterprise Platform Associate

Becoming an Android Enterprise Platform Associate typically involves gaining expertise in managing and deploying Android devices within an enterprise environment. Here are some key aspects and responsibilities associated with this role:

1. Android Enterprise Solutions: Understanding the Android Enterprise platform, which includes features like work profiles, managed devices, and dedicated devices.
2. Deployment Strategies: Knowledge of different deployment strategies such as BYOD (Bring Your Own Device), COPE (Corporate Owned, Personally Enabled), and COSU (Corporate Owned Single Use).
3. Security and Management: Implementing security policies, configurations, and management practices to ensure devices are secure and compliant with organizational requirements.
4. Device Provisioning: Proficiency in provisioning Android devices at scale using methods like zero-touch enrollment, QR code provisioning, or NFC provisioning.
5. Application Management: Managing applications on Android devices, including deployment, updating, and ensuring compatibility with enterprise policies.
6. Troubleshooting and Support: Providing technical support to users and resolving issues related to Android devices and applications.
7. Policy Configuration: Configuring policies for device settings, network access, and application usage based on organizational needs and security standards.

To become proficient in these areas, individuals often pursue training and certification programs offered by Google or other authorized training providers. These programs typically cover the technical aspects of managing Android devices in an enterprise setting and may include hands-on labs or simulations to practice deployment scenarios.

LinkedIn WordPress Exam Quiz Answers

Question 1: In WordPress, what is the Loop used to do?

• It displays a single page.
• It displays posts on an archive.
• It displays a single post.
• all of these answers

Question 2: Who owns the trademark for WordPress and WordCamp names and logos?

• WordPress Foundation (The WordPress Foundation owns and oversees the trademarks for the WordPress and WordCamp names and logos.)
• WordPress.com
• Matt Mullenweg
• Automattic

Question 3: The REST API is a simple way to get data in and out of WordPress over HTTP. Applications using the REST API should be written in which programming language?

• PHP
• any programming language that can make HTTP requests and interpret JSON
• Java
• Node.js

Question 4: How many minutes does it take to install WordPress according to the “Famous X-Minute Installation” instructions on WordPress.org?

• 5
• 30
• 15
• 10

Question 5: In WordPress, what is true of plugins?

• Plugins are available in free or premium (paid) versions.
• Plugins can extend WordPress core functionality.
• all of these answers
• Plugins add site-specific features.

Question 6: Akismet is a plugin that comes automatically installed with WordPress. What does it do?

• It connects your site to Google Analytics.
• It displays a blog feed from websites similar to yours.
• It protects your site from comment spam.
• It hardens site security by enforcing strong passwords.

Question 7: What would you do to improve your site’s performance?

• Only load scripts and styles on pages where they are needed.
• Minify CSS and JavaScript files.
• all of these answers
• Use a CDN.

Question 8: The REST API utilizes which data format?

• YAML
• JSON
• TXT
• XML

Question 9: What color is the paragraph nested within the div?

• blue
• black
• red
• green

Question 10: Theme developers can take advantage of the Customizer API to give users a way to manipulate basic theme settings. The Customizer API is object-oriented and provides four main objects. What are they?

• widgets, containers, sections, settings
• containers, hooks, settings, styles
• panels, blocks, controls, settings
• panels, sections, controls, settings

Question 11: Which WordPress setting would you use to make page URLs look like http://example.com/my-page/ instead of the default http://example.com/?p=21/?

• Writing
• Permalinks
• Pretty URLs
• Reading

Question 12: In WordPress, what is the block editor used for?

• cropping images in the media library
• injecting specialized scripts into the content area
• creating a site layout
• creating and laying out content

Question 13: Which of the following file types is NOT involved in translating WordPress?

• .po
• .pot
• . mot
• .mo

Question 14: What is the default priority for an action hook or filter?

• 10
• 15
• 0
• 5

Question 15: What’s the primary difference between template tags prefaced with the versus get_the?

• Template tags prefaced with the _ don’t accept arguments.
• Template tags prefaced with the _ can be used directly within a template.
• Template tags prefaced with the _ display a value. Template tags prefaced with get_the return a value.
• Template tags prefaced with the _ return a value. Template tags prefaced with get_the display a value.

Question 16: WP_Query is the WordPress query class that is used to fetch posts from the database. How would you create a new instance of this class?

• $query = new query_posts ();
• $query = new WP_Query ();
• $query = query_posts ();
• $query = get_posts ();

Question 17: What is a user role that is unique to WordPress Multisite?

• Owner
• Super Admin
• MU Admin
• Multisite Master

Question 18: Within the editor, blocks are rendered as JavaScript. How are blocks rendered on the front end of a site?

• as plain HTML
• as a React component
• as JavaScript comments
• as HTML comments

Question 19: Which of these is NOT a part of the internationalization and localization process?

• using a gettext function to wrap translatable strings when writing code
• installing/using the WordPress Multilingual Plugin
• using a tool like Poedit to parse source code and extract translatable strings into a POT file
• translators translating the POT file into a PO file, one for each language

Question 20: The REST API provides public data, which is accessible to any client anonymously, as well as private data available only after authentication. How could you ensure that no one can anonymously access site data via the REST API?

• Disable the REST API via the site’s wp-config.php file.
• Use the rest_authentication_errors () filter along with the is_user_logged_in () conditional to limit access to logged in users.
• Use the rest_authentication_errors () filter along with cookie authentication to limit access to logged in users.
• Use the Disable REST API plugin.

Question 21: Which of these snippets represents a wrapper that calls jQuery safely and doesn’t require repetitive use of the word “jQuery”?

• // do stuff

});

• (function ($) {

// do stuff

}) (jQuery);

• $(function () {

// do stuff

});

• jQuery (function ($) {

// do stuff

});

Question 22: What is the correct order of parameters for the add_action () function?

• add_action (‘example_hook’, ‘example_function’, $accepted_args, $priority)
• add_action (‘example_function’, ‘example_hook’, $priority, $accepted_args)
• add_action (‘example_hook’, ‘example_function’, $priority, $accepted_args)
• add_action (‘example_function’, ‘example_hook’, $priority)

Question 23: You have a search bar on your site. You would like to use a to make the word “Search” visible to screen readers, but you don’t want to display the word “Search” on the screen. How can you accomplish this?

• Assign an ARIA state of “hidden” to the label, like this: <label state=” hidden”>Search</label> <input type=”text” name=” search” id=” search” />
• Use the built-in WordPress CSS class. screen-reader-text to hide the text from screen, like this: <label class=” screen-reader-text”>Search</label> <input type=”text” name=” search” id=” search” />
• Create a custom CSS class to set a large negative value to the text-indent property to hide the text off screen, like this: <label class=” hide-this”>Search</label> <input type=”text” name=” search” id=” search” />
• The majority of users do not require a screen reader. Remove the label entirely.

Question 24: You might see this code in a WordPress plugin. What does it do?

• This is how WordPress detects a plugin’s presence. This ensures that the plugin is running from the /wp-content/plugins/ directory. If it is not, the plugin should not run.
• This is a way to prevent naming collisions. ABSPATH is the absolute path to the plugin’s directory. If ABSPATH is defined by another WordPress plugin with the same directory slug, the plugin should not run.
• This is a security measure. ABSPATH is the absolute path to the WordPress directory. If the file is called directly, ABSPATH will not be defined and therefore the plugin should not run.
• This is a compatibility checker. ABSPATH is defined in WordPress core. The plugin checks that the minimum version of WordPress needed to support the plugin is installed. If it is not, the plugin should not run.

Question 25: Which is a best practice for working with WordPress CSS?

• Use! important next to styles if they don’t give you the result you want.
• Use hyphens in class names.
• Use spaces to indent each property.
• Avoid CSS shorthand for proper documentation.

Question 26: WordPress is translated, at least partially, in more than 200 locales. If you wanted to help translate WordPress into other languages, which contributor group would you join?

• core
• polyglots
• accessibility
• documentation

Question 27: What is the difference between an action and a filter?

• Actions are used to add custom functions and remove WordPress functions. Filters are used to make strings translatable for localization.
• Actions are used to add or remove code at runtime. Filters are used to modify data before it is either displayed in the browser or saved to the database.
• Actions are used to assign values to variables at runtime. Filters are used to extract data from actions and display it in the browser.
• Actions are used to add user-inputted data to the database. Filters are used to validate user-inputted data prior to adding it to the database.

Question 28: If you activate or update a plugin and it breaks your site so that you cannot manage it via wp-admin, how can you disable the plugin?

• all of these answers
• Access the WordPress install via WP-CLI. Run the following command: wp plugin deactivate offending-plugin.
• Access site files via FTP and navigate to /wp-content/plugins/. Delete the folder of the plugin that you would like to disable or simply rename it.
• Use phpMyAdmin to change the wp_options table’s active_plugins option value to a:0: {}.

Question 29: The WordPress REST API is designed to receive and respond to particular types of requests using basic HTML methods. For example, a request to upload a PHP file into a particular folder on a server might look like the code POST /folder/_file.php. Based on this code, what would you call /folder/_file.php (in REST API terms)?

• schema
• route
• response
• request

Question 30: Which WP-CLI command would you use to manage the capabilities of a user role?

• wp admin
• wp manage
• wp cap
• wp role

Question 31: What technique would you use to secure data before rendering it to a user?

• escape and sanitize
• validate and escape
• validate and sanitize
• escape and secure

Question 32: If your WordPress site is seriously compromised, what is the best course of action to return your site to good health?

• Determine the date of the attack and restore your site to a backup point prior to that date.
• Hire a third-party service to clean up your site because it is difficult for someone who is not a WordPress security expert to find and remove all traces of an attack.
• Manually delete suspicious files on the server and delete any database tables that are not core WordPress.
• Change your hosting password, your WordPress admin password, and your database password.

Question 33: If you wanted to register a custom post type, which hook would you use?

• register_post_type
• add_meta_box
• wp_head
• init

Question 34: What is the role of a WordPress theme?

• controls colors, fonts, and page layouts
• adds accessibility enhancements such as keyboard navigation and skip links
• ensures a site is mobile responsive
• all of these answers

Question 35: What is the name of the open-source project that serves as a bug tracker and project management tool for WordPress?

• HackerOne
• Redmine
• Trac
• GitHub Issues

Question 36: How would you write a text string containing “Hello World!” in a way that makes it possible for someone else to translate the string into a different language?

• apply_filters (‘Hello World!’, ‘mytextdomain’);
• __ (‘Hello World!’, ‘mytextdomain’);
• $string = “Hello World!”;
• esc_html (‘Hello World!’, ‘mytextdomain’);

Question 37: What is the core mission of WordPress?

• to make free software
• to democratize publishing and the freedoms that come with open source
• to make money
• to encourage blogging

Question 38: Which of the following is NOT a suggested security improvement for your WordPress website?

• The site should communicate with WordPress.org.
• Remove inactive themes.
• Do not output debug information.
• WordPress updates are accomplished manually only.

Question 39: How can you add a custom script that needs to run only on the contact page of a site? The slug of the page is contact.

• Link to the script directly from a template named page-contact.php using the get_header () template tag, like this:

get_header (‘<script src=”/my-script.js”></script>’);

• Use functions.php to conditionally load the script by hooking it to

wp_enqueue_scripts (), like this:

add_action (‘wp_enqueue_scripts’, ‘load_scripts’);

function load_scripts () {

if (is_page (‘contact’)) {

echo ‘<script src=”/my-script.js”></script>’;

}

}

• Use functions.php to conditionally load the script by hooking it to

wp_enqueue_scripts (), like this:

add_action (‘wp_enqueue_scripts’, ‘load_scripts’);

function load_scripts () {

if (is_page (‘contact’)) {

wp_enqueue_script (‘script’, get_template_directory_uri (). ‘/script.js’);

}

}

• Link to the script directly from a template named page-contact.php, like this:

<head>

<script src=”/my-script.js”></script>

</head>

Question 40: Where can you find the official WordPress documentation and usage guide?

• support.wordpress.com
• developer.wordpress.com
• developer.wordpress.org
• support.wordpress.org

Question 41: How would you use CSS to ensure your theme was mobile responsive?

• Use CSS grid to create responsive layouts.
• Use media queries to add breakpoints for different screen sizes.
• Use Flexbox to create flexible page layouts.
• all of these answers

Question 42: The Block API enables developers to register custom blocks in themes or plugins. How would you register a custom block?

• Use the registerBlockName () function.
• se the createGutenBlock () function.
• Use a block template.
• Use the registerBlockType () function.

Question 43: Which software development principle, often used in WordPress, aims to reduce the repetition of code?

• RRR
• WET
• DRY
• KISS

Question 44: In a standard template file, how often does the WordPress Loop run?

• It runs once per post in the database.
• It runs once.
• The Loop doesn’t run in template files.
• It runs once per fetched post.

Question 45: Which is not a suggested performance improvement for your WordPress website?

• The site should run the most recent version of WordPress.
• Remove or inactivate unnecessary plugins.
• UTF8 is supported.
• Choose a very recent version of PHP.

Question 46: On a regular WordPress install, what is the difference between transients and the object cache?

• Transients are persistent and write to the wp_options. The object cache persists only for the particular page load.
• Transients are stored in the WordPress database. The object cache is stored on the server where the WordPress install is located.
• Transients are available for the duration of a user session and apply to all page components. The object cache is available only for scripts.
• Transients persist only for the particular page load. The object cache is persistent and writes to the wp_options table.

Question 47: For the majority of modern themes, what is the standard method used to customize various details of site appearance and features, such as changing the site description or adding a logo and favicons?

• Theme settings
• wp-config.php
• Customizer
• WordPress settings

Question 48: You can harden your WordPress site security by adding ____ to your wp-config.php file?

• database usernames and passwords
• unique keys and salts
• accessibility
• documentation

Question 49: According to WordPress PHP coding standards for inline comments, how would you write a single-line comment in a PHP document?

• // This is a single line comment
• /* * This is a single line comment. */
• // This is a single line comment.
• <! – This is a single line comment –>

Question 50: If you have pretty permalinks enabled on a WordPress site, the REST API index is exposed by appending what to the end of the site URL? (for example, http://example.com/answer/) Note that the index provides information regarding which routes are available for that particular WordPress install.

• http://example.com/wp-json/
• http://example.com/wp-admin/
• http://example.com/wp-rest/
• http://example.com/wp-rest-api/

Question 51: What is the process of marking the code you write so that it is ready for translation?

• internationalization
• localization
• translation
• using GlotPress

Question 52: In your wp-config.php file, you’ve added the following line of code. What does it do?

define (‘DISALLOW_FILE_EDIT’, true);

• prevents any non-admin user from directly editing theme or plugin files
• disables the theme and plugin editor in the WordPress admin
• disables the ability to edit core WordPress files from either within the WordPress admin or via direct file access
• sets read-only permissions on all files in the WordPress install

Question 53: The WordPress block editor contains a number of default blocks, including blocks for paragraphs, images, quotes, and shortcode. Blocks are grouped into categories to help users browse and discover them. Which is not a category provided by WordPress core?

• formatting
• widgets
• layout
• shortcodes

Question 54: JavaScript variables can hold many data types. Which data type does the following variable represent?

• Boolean
• Number
• String
• Object

Question 55: You would use a post instead of a page when the content is _.

• for a top-level menu item
• nested (has a parent/child relationship with another piece of content)
• when the content is part of a blog.
• evergreen

Question 56: Which of these are best practices in accessibility?

• Do not skip heading levels.
• Be sure there is proper color contrast between background and text.
• If an activity can be completed with a mouse, it must also be accessible by keyboard.
• all of these answers

Question 57: For the majority of modern themes, what is the standard method used to customize various details of site appearance and features, such as changing the site description or adding a logo and favicons?

• Theme settings
• wp-config.php
• Customizer
• WordPress settings

Question 58: Why can’t you modify the query in a template page?

• The query can only be run inside the Loop.
• You can modify the query in a template page if you use pre_get_posts ().
• According to WordPress best practices, the query should only be modified in functions.php.
• Due to execution order, the query has already run by the time a template is loaded.

Question 59: In the WordPress template hierarchy, which file could not be used to display an archive?

• archive.php
• index.php
• page.php
• category.php

Question 60: You can harden your WordPress site security by adding _ to your wp-config.php file?

• hashes and reCAPTCHA
• database username and passwords
• custom action hooks and filters
• unique keys and salts

Question 61: Which of these are the minimum files required to make a child theme?

• index.php functions.php
• index.php style.css script.js
• functions.php style.css script.js
• functions.php style.css

Question 62: What is this code sample an example of?

• custom query
• template tags
• the Loop
• nested loop

Question 63: WordPress core and many plugins store data in the database in a special format as represented by the sample below. What format is this called?

• value
• serialized data
• PHP array
• text array

Question 64: Which WordPress conditional would you use to determine if you were on a single page?

• is archive ()
• is_page ()
• is_page_template ()
• is_single ()

Question 65: When should you edit core WordPress files?

• when there is no plugin available to make a customization, you need
• when you need to add a custom page template
• when you need to add a custom script to the header or footer of every page in a site
• You should never edit WordPress core.

Question 66: What user role would you assign to someone so they can write and publish only their posts and no one else’s?

• Contributor
• Author
• Editor
• Subscriber

Question 67: On a webpage, there are frequently navigation links, a search bar, or other elements that appear before the main content. For keyboard and screen reader users, it can be frustrating to get to the main content of a page because they have to tab through all these elements on every new page load. What can you add to a site to fix this?

• collapsible menus
• infinite scroll
• skip links
• tabbed navigation

Question 68: If you wanted to debug some JavaScript, which method would you use to display data in your browser console?

• windows. alert ()
• console.log ()
• document. write ()
• innerHTML

Question 69: What are transients?

• short database queries
• a way to cache information
• plugins used for quick debugging
• post draft stored in the database

Question 70: Which folder in a WordPress install is not affected by an automatic WordPress update?

• /Wp-admin
• root
• /Wp-content
• /Wp-includes

Question 71: Which of these CSS classs naming convention is correct according to WordPress CSS Coding Standards?

• . selector-name
• . selector_name
• . selectorName
• div.selector_name

Question 72: Review of the HTML on line1. The goal of the PHP on line 2 is to extract the field value and assign it to a variable prior to inserting into the database. What is wrong with this PHP code?

• The code sample does not use the GET method. It should be wrapped in the get_post_field () function and look like this $title = get_post_field ($GET [ ‘title’]);
• The code sample does not use sanitize the form data. It should use the sanitize_text_field () function and look like this: $title = sanitize_text_field ($_POST [ ‘title’]);
• There is no error. The code follows WordPress best practices.
• The code sample does not allow for translation. It should use a translation function and look like this: $title = __ ($_POST [ ‘title’];

Question 73: WordPress is an open-source software licensed under the GPL. This means that __.

• derivative works must also be licensed as GPL
• all of these answers
• the software is free to use
• the software is free to modify

Question 74: In which of the following ways might you contribute to the WordPress community by testing?

• user testing
• all of these answers
• beta testing
• automated testing

Question 75: Which of the following must have underlined links in order to meet WCAG 2.0 accessibility standards?

• links on images
• links in user interface controls
• links in a nav bar
• links in paragraph text

Introduction to LinkedIn WordPress

LinkedIn and WordPress are two distinct platforms with different purposes:

1. LinkedIn: LinkedIn is a social networking site designed for professionals. It’s primarily used for professional networking, job searching, and career development. Users create profiles that function as digital resumes, showcasing their work experience, skills, education, and professional achievements. LinkedIn also allows users to connect with colleagues and peers, join professional groups, and share content related to their industry.
2. WordPress: WordPress, on the other hand, is a content management system (CMS) primarily used for creating websites and blogs. It’s open-source software that provides a platform for building and managing websites of all types, from personal blogs to corporate websites and e-commerce stores. WordPress offers a wide range of themes and plugins that allow users to customize the look and functionality of their websites without needing extensive technical knowledge.

Integration and Use Cases:

• LinkedIn Integration with WordPress: Many professionals and businesses use WordPress to create their websites or blogs. They might integrate LinkedIn features into their WordPress sites in several ways:
  • Social Sharing: WordPress plugins can be used to integrate social sharing buttons, including LinkedIn, so visitors can easily share content on their LinkedIn profiles.
  • Profile Integration: Some plugins allow you to display LinkedIn profiles or badges on a WordPress site, showcasing professional credentials or team members’ profiles.
  • Job Postings: Companies may integrate LinkedIn’s job postings into their WordPress sites to display current job openings or career opportunities.
  • Content Syndication: WordPress can automatically syndicate blog posts or updates to LinkedIn profiles or company pages, increasing visibility and engagement.

Conclusion:

While LinkedIn is focused on professional networking and career-related activities, WordPress serves as a versatile platform for website creation and content management. Integration between the two platforms can enhance professional branding, content distribution, and engagement strategies for individuals and businesses alike.

LinkedIn Search Engine Optimization Exam Quiz Answers

Question 1: When developing a backlink strategy, what approach would be most beneficial?

• Guest posts the article to as many sites as possible
• Create an infographic and share it with relevant bloggers
• Create diverse and unnatural links
• Distribute links in comment sections of websites

Question 2: What is a key reason the URL domain.com/apparel/jackets is preferable to the URL domain.com/p=141?

• It is longer
• It is not preferable
• It uses structured markup
• It is readable to a human

Question 3: Which HTTP response status code would indicate a page has been moved permanently?

• 410
• 302
• 200
• 301

Question 4: You notice a website is serving HTML to a Search Engine than to a human user. What is this an example of?

• Spam injection
• Cloaking
• Sneaky Redirect
• Splicing

Question 5: What would significantly improve Google’s ability to a non-YouTube video in its Search Results?

• Provide a 150 x 80-pixel thumbnail image
• Add Schema.org VideoObject
• Convert .mp4 videos to .mov
• Embed video objects with JavaScript conditionals

Question 6: Google primarily determines indexing and ranking by crawling which version of a page?

• Responsive version
• Submitted version
• Mobile version
• Desktop version

Question 7: You want to identify which US state has the most search interest for a particular keyword. What tool would help you determine this?

• Google Analytics
• Google Keyword Planner
• Google Search Console
• Google Trends

Question 8: You want to block crawlers from accessing your entire website. What robots.txt entry would you use?

• markdown User-agent: Allbots Disallow: \* “` ““
• markdown User-agent: / Disallow: \* “` ““
• markdown User-agent: / Disallow: “` ““
• markdown User-agent: \* Disallow: / “` ““

Question 9: Which results is most likely if you use an interstitial pop-up that requires a user to take action before you load the content of the page?

• Both the pop-up and the content of the page will be indexed
• The pop-up will be indexed instead of the desired body content
• An interstitial pop-up is treated the same as a soft 404
• The pop-up will be ignored, and the content of the page will be indexed correctly

Question 10: You notice a particular product in an e-commerce storefront is no longer indexed despite no technical issues. What is a likely reason for this?

• No title or meta description tags were provided
• The Keywords is too competitive
• Robots.txt is configured to allow access
• The product is out of stock

Question 11: Which approach is not advisable to Geo-targeting your website?

• Using a gTLD with subdomain
• using URL parameters
• Using a ccTLD
• Using a gTLD with a subdirectory

Question 12: You have been asked to help a big e-commerce brand optimize their website for search engines. They currently have thousands of products listed on their website. What is your most appropriate first step?

• Recommend that they add more products
• WOrd on compressing image files
• 302 redirect all product pages to URL that contains target keywords
• 302 redirect all product ages to a URL that contains target keywords
• Register the business with a Google My Business account.

Question 13: What Does the Term “Sandbox” Mean In SEO?

• The Box with Paid Ads That Appear When You Perform a Search.
• This Is Where Sites Are Kept Till, They Get Mature Enough to Be Included in The Top Rankings for A Particular Keyword
• A Special Category of Sites That Are Listed in Kid-safe Searches
• The First 10 Search Results for A Particular Keyword.

Question 14: What Is Anchor Text?

• It Is the Main Body of Text on A Particular Web Page
• It Is the Text Within the Left or Top Panel of a Web Page
• It Is the Visible Text That Is Hyper Linked to Another Page
• It Is the Most Prominent Text on The Page That the Search Engines Use to Assign A Title To The Page

Question 15: Which Google search query should be used to return only PDF documents that reference Microsoft?

• Microsoft + .pdf
• “Microsoft” + “pdf”
• Microsoft AND “pdf”
• Microsoft filetype:pdf

Question 16: Which link is not crawlable?

• <a href=” http://domain.com”>
• <a onclick=” newwin(‘domain.com’)”>
• <a href=” http://domain.com” class=” blue”>
• <a href=”. /Category-2/page”>

Question 17: Which choice represents the best header structure?

• markdown H1: How to Bak Bagels H2: Ingredients H3: Dry Ingredients H4: Wet Ingredients H2: Instructions H6: Reviews “` ““
• markdown H1: How to Bak Bagels H1: Ingredients H1: Dry Ingredients H1: Wet Ingredients H1: Instructions H2: Reviews “` ““
• markdown H1: How to Bak Bagels H2: Ingredients H3: Dry Ingredients H3: Wet Ingredients H2: Instructions H2: Reviews “` ““
• markdown H1: How to Bak Bagels H2: Ingredients H4: Dry Ingredients H5: Wet Ingredients H6: Instructions H1: Reviews “` ““

Question 18: All byline dates articles are suddenly no longer visible on a website’s listing within Google Search. Assuming no changes have been made to the site programming or content, what is the most likely cause?

• The site has been delisted from Google Search
• The site kept updating the date to make the content appear fresh, without changing the content.
• The articles have aged more than 365 days without any significant updates to the content or the site.
• A Google New sitemap was not provided within 30 days of setting up a Publisher Center account

Question 19: All bylone dates for articles are suddenly no longer visible on a website’s listing within Google Search. Assuming no changes have been made to the site programming or content, what is the most likely cause?

• The site has been delisted from Google Search
• A Google News sitemap was not provided within 30 days of setting up a publisher center account
• The site kept updating the dates to make the content appear fres, without changing
• The articles have aged more than 365 days without any significant updates to the content or the site

Question 20: When creating accessible video content, what should you consider including?

• transcript
• thumbnail
• Flash Player
• event tracking

Question 21: You are optimizing a website that sells supplies for banking donuts. Which approach is most appropriate to drive more organic traffic?

• Buy donutbakingsupplies.com and 301 redirect to your website
• Add the keyword “donut supplies” to every page.
• Create a new blog with high-quality donut recipes
• Join a link farm to rapidly build inbound links.

Question 22: Why is it important to be mindful of outbound follow links?

• There is a limit to how many links you can create.
• all of these answers
• Any follow links reduce your PageRank by 1.
• Your site’s reputation is tied to the sites you link to.

Question 23: Which statement is true about JSON-LD?

• It has no relation to JSON.
• It is the only structured data format available.
• It is considered the most complicated approach to adding structured data.
• It is Google’s preferred structured data format.

Question 24: What is a key reason why duplicate content might cause an issue with ranking?

• It creates an inability to use canonical URLs, which dramatically reduces crawl effectiveness,
• It requires using a 302 redirect, which dilutes PageRank.
• It triggers an immediate manual action penalty, which delists an entire domain until the duplicate content is removed.
• It makes it difficult for a search engine to determine the original and authoritative content source.

Question 25: What attribute would you use to describe the content of an image?

• tabindex
• longdesc
• src
• alt

Question 26: You are researching keywords for a client and creating list for an optimization plan. Which is not a recommended method of creating keyword lists?

• synonyms and related words
• queries about benefits, features, problems
• how-to and question-based queries
• focusing on only high-volume, high-popularity words

Question 27: You want to get a rough idea of how many searches per month a particular search term gets. Which tool do you use?

• Google Keyword Planner
• Google Tag Manager
• Google Search Console
• Google Suggest

Question 28: Changing the title tag and/or meta description will have a measurable impact on your ____.

• RSS
• CTR
• PPC
• LSI

Question 29: How do keywords change as people progress through the buying cycle?

• They move from simple to more complex as searchers gather more information and then refine their choices.
• The stay simple, as searchers try to use as few words as possible.
• The keywords do not change much at all.
• They move from complex to simple, as searchers find answers to their questions.

Question 30: Which technique is an example of black hat SEO?

• cloaking
• keyword research
• useful content
• on-page optimization

Question 31: A local accountant wants to start attracting more business directly from Google organic search. What is the best piece of advice to give to her?

• Use the phrase “local accountant” as a keyword to focus her website on.
• Focus on short-tail keywords.
• Register her business with a Google My Business account.
• Leave a link to her website in the blog comments of popular accounting websites.

Question 32: What is the anchor text in this code sample?

<a href=” catalog/gloves.html”>Blue Gloves</a>

• Blue Gloves
• href
• catalog/
• gloves.html

Question 33: ________ analysis allows you to review requests made to your web server to identify insights such as how ofter a crawler arrives, what pages have 404 errors, and most crawled pages

• Log file
• HTTP/2
• Cron job
• Resource packet

Question 34: Which page title references content that is evergreen

• Mega List of Teams Going to the Olympics
• Complete Coverage of Microsoft’s Latest Announcement
• The Future of SEO in 2020
• How to Reheat Pizza

Question 35: You load a page and start reading an article, and suddenly the content on the page moves. What metric is used to quantify this impact on user experience?

• First Meaningful Paint (FMP)
• Recalculated Style Timing (RST)
• Latent Loading Signal (LLS)
• Cumulative Layout Shift (CLS)

Question 36: What is this code is an example of?

{

“@context”: “https://schema.org”,

“@type”: “Organization”,

“url”: “http://www.domain.com”,

“name”: “Bradley Corp.”,

“contactPoint”: {

“@type”: “ContactPoint”,

“telephone”: “+1-555-555-5555”,

“contactType”: “Customer service”

}

}

</script>

• meta tag
• HTTP response
• XML sitemap
• structured data

Question 37: Which search query would be most difficult to determine search intent?

• XBox live coupon
• Microsoft Office 365
• LinkedIn login
• LAX airport directions

Question 38: When you conduct a search, what are the bolded words within the search listing description?

• suggested search terms
• related search queries
• keywords that match the search query
• words with a tag assigned in their meta description

Question 39: Which acronym is used to describe the page a user sees after submitting a search?

• SERT (Search Engine Results Page)
• INDX
• PARS
• SEM

Question 40: Which statement is true regarding the use of social signals, such as LinkedIn shares, by Google in its ranking algorithm?

• Google does not use social signals to determine rank
• Social signals are identical to backlinks
• Social signals are used to determine topic authority
• Social signals provide a benefit only if they have structured data markup

Question 41: A user clicks an internal link resulting in this redirect chain: http://domain.com -> https://domain.com -> https://domain.com/. In this example, what is being consumed unnecessarily?

• redirect allotment
• crawl budget
• velocity scale
• domain authority

Question 42: You are planning for the development of an e-commerce website. Which approach will be more beneficial for rankings?

• Optimize the front page of your website to drive traffic from all category search terms.
• Optimize product category pages to drive traffic from individual category search terms.
• Optimize all pages on the site for all category search terms.
• Optimize product pages to drive traffic from individual category search terms.

Question 43: You want to block crwlers from accessing your entire website. What robots.txt entry would you use?

• User-agent: Allbots Disallow: * “` ““
• User-agent: / Disallow: * “` ““
• User-agent: * Disallow: “` ““
• User-agent: * Disallow: / “` ““

Question 44: What is the relationship of click depth to PageRank?

• The deeper the click depth, the lower the PageRank
• PageRank and click depth have no relation
• The deeper the click depth, the higher the PageRank
• Click depth and PageRank are equal

Question 45: What is a popular technique for writing content with the goal of having it appear in a features snippet?

• Write the question in a headline tag, and then answer it below in a format that matches the snippet type.
• Use the features snippet schema and apply an object that matches the correct snippet type.
• Google manually generates featured snippets, so there is no special technique.
• Submit the content through Google Search Console, and tag it with the correct snippet type.

Question 46: What is an example of a Google search result that can be found in position zero?

• Google Ads result
• featured snippet
• autocomplete
• related searches

Question 47: Which approach is not advisable to geotargeting your website?

• using a gTLD with a subdirectory
• using URL parameters
• using a gTLD with subdomain
• using a ccTLD

Question 48: What is a common best practice for handling search result pages on a blog’s built-in site search?

• Set site research results to no-index.
• Do not use site search.
• Set site search to 404.
• Add a canonical from the search result page to the home page.

Question 49: What is the best way to provide a search engine with crawl instructions?

• Use the tag.
• Use the search engine’s Remove URL tool.
• Use a robots.txt file.
• Use structured data

Question 50: Why might using a subdirectory in place of a subdomain be beneficial?

• Using a subdirectory is never preferable to using a subdomain.
• The subdirectory will allow for keyword dilution.
• The subdirectory will benefit from the backlinks the domain has acquired.
• The subdirectory is better for the end user experience.

Question 51: Google’s Search Quality Evaluator Guidelines describe that experts should write content, especially YMYL content. This is one of the principles seen in the commonly used acronym__

• A.C.E
• L-E-A-F
• T.R.U.S.T.E.D
• E-A-T

Question 52: You are optimizing a large e-commerce website. Which strategy will likely yield the most organic traffic?

• Launch a Smart Shopping Campaign in Google Ads.
• Optimize the home page of your website.
• Optimize each product page with a unique product-specific keyword.
• Optimize your product category pages.

Question 53: What is a common benefit to long-tail keywords?

• They are less competitive, and may have higher conversion rates.
• Long-tail keywords are no longer relevant in today’s SEO landscape.
• They are less grandular, so you capture broader searches.
• They are more competitive, but drive significantly more traffic.

Question 54: Blog author pages, each with only one sentence about the author, are at risk of being flagged as _ content.

• non-indexable
• irrelevant
• biased
• thin

Question 55: Your client is ready to start a blog. but has read that they should put the blog on a subdomain instead of subdirectory in order to create more external links to their website. How would you advise your client about this strategy?

• Not only should the blog be on a subdomain, but each of the major navigation areas should be on separate subdomains in order to increase the number and value of the links into the primary domain.
• It is best to have the blog on a subdirectory and build links to primary domain.
• It is an advisable choice as it will enable interlinking between the domains and increase the number of links.
• The blog should be on a separate URL to avoid building too many links between the same domain or IP.

Question 56: What tool enables companies to display extra information within the natural search results without the need of any structured data?

• Google Input Tools
• structured data testing tool
• Google Tag Manager
• Google My Business

Question 57: The search query “How to make donuts without yeast” is an example of what?

• fresh keyword
• operative keyword
• short-tail keyword
• long-tail keyword

Question 58: A user enters a search _ to retrieve results from a search engine?

• query
• parser
• bar
• link

Question 59: What should be as consistent as possible across the web when developing a local SEO strategy?

• backlinks
• NAP
• LRP
• inbound links

Question 60: What would contribute to a low bounce rate?

• Content does not match search intent.
• Page returns 404 error.
• Content reflects search intent.
• URL uses parameters.

Question 61: When would it be necessary to 301 redirect every page on a site?

• when parameters are used in URLs
• when migrating from HTTP to HTTPS
• when launching a new redesign
• when creating a new subdomain

Question 62: According to Google, what type of content includes topics such as news, legal issues, financial advice, and medical information?

• RSS
• KYC
• YMYL
• BDB

Question 63: What data vocabulary is most commonly used when marking up content on a page?

• vocabulary.org
• RDFa.org
• schema.org
• data-vocabulary.org

Question 64: Your site serves identical content when you visit domain.com/page or domain.com/page?ref=123. What should you implement?

• parameter stripping
• URL cloaking
• a 302 redirect
• a rel=canonical link

Question 65: What alt attribute should be assigned to an image of a decorative line being used to separate content

• alt=””
• alt=” Thin black line being used to separate two blocks of content”
• alt=” dec”
• alt=” thin-line”

Question 66: A webpage has this tag: However, the Google search result for this page displays this title: _Brad’s Bagels: Baking Bagels in the Oven_. What is a likely explanation?

• The title tag was placed within the section of the webpage, but not before the meta content tags, so Google cannot identify the actual title.
• The page is using structured data to define an alternative title object, which allows the search engine to pick a preferable version.
• A breadcrumb navigation is in use, which overrides the title tag supplied in the HTML.
• Google generated a new title using text on the page that more closely matched the search query.

Question 67: What might help a search engine understand the difference between an article on a dog bark versus tree bark?

• tertiary analysis
• ranked choice trees
• semantic analysis
• knowledge graphs

Introduction to LinkedIn Search Engine Optimization

Optimizing your LinkedIn profile for search engines is crucial for increasing your visibility and making it easier for others to find you. Here are some key strategies:

1. Keyword Optimization:
   • Identify relevant keywords related to your industry, skills, job titles, and expertise.
   • Incorporate these keywords naturally throughout your profile, including headline, summary, experience sections, and skills.
2. Complete Your Profile:
   • Ensure your profile is fully filled out with detailed information about your work experience, education, skills, and certifications.
   • Use all available sections such as volunteer experience, projects, and languages to provide comprehensive content.
3. Customize Your URL:
   • Customize your LinkedIn URL to include your full name or a variation that reflects your professional identity.
   • This helps with personal branding and makes your profile easier to find in search results.
4. Engage with Relevant Content:
   • Regularly share and engage with content related to your industry or expertise.
   • LinkedIn tends to prioritize active users in search results, so stay engaged with your network.
5. Get Recommendations and Endorsements:
   • Ask colleagues, clients, and supervisors for recommendations that highlight your skills and accomplishments.
   • Endorse others for their skills, as they might reciprocate, which can strengthen your profile’s credibility.
6. Join and Participate in Groups:
   • Join LinkedIn groups relevant to your industry or interests.
   • Actively participate in discussions and share your expertise to increase your visibility.
7. Use Rich Media and Links:
   • Incorporate rich media such as presentations, videos, and articles to showcase your work and expertise.
   • Include links to your personal website, blog, or other professional profiles to enhance your online presence.
8. Regular Updates and Profile Maintenance:
   • Keep your profile updated with your latest achievements, skills, and experiences.
   • Regularly review and refine your profile to ensure it reflects your current career goals and aspirations.

By implementing these strategies, you can enhance your LinkedIn profile’s visibility in search engine results and attract more relevant connections and opportunities.

LinkedIn PHP Exam Quiz Answers

Question 1: What does this code output?

• 1
• -1
• a parser errors
• 0

Question 2: Which is the most secure way to avoid storing a password in clear text in database?

• $encrypted = shal($password);
• $encrypted = crypt ($password, \$salt);
• $encrypted = md5($password);
• $encrypted = password_hash ($password, PASSWORD_DEFAULT);

Question 3: What does this script do?

• It makes sure the email address is a good and functioning address
• It makes an email safe to input into a database
• It assigns an email to a variable and then removes all illegal characters from the $email variable
• It verifies that an email address is well formed.

Question 4: In the following script, which line(s) will cause an error(s)?

• Line 6 will cause an error because you can’t reassign a new value to a variable that has already been set.
• Line 7 and 8 will cause an error. Line 7 has whitespace in $will i work and should be $will_i_work. Line 8 cannot start with a number because it is a variable.
• Line 5 will cause an error because some_string should be someString.
• Line 3 and 4 will cause an error because a variable cannot start with an underscore (_).

Question 5: In a conditional statement, you want to execute the code only if both values are true. Which comparison operator should you use?

• ||
• &
• <=>
• &&

Question 6: All variables in PHP start with which symbol?

• &
• %
• _
• $

Question 7: What is a key difference between GET and POST?

• GET is used with the HTTP protocol. POST is used with HTTPS.
• GET displays the submitted data as part of the URL. During POST, this information is not shown, as it’s encoded in the request body.
• GET is intended for changing the server state and it carries more data than POST.
• GET is more secure than POST and should be used for sensitive information.

Question 8: The **_ operator is useful for sorting operations. It compares two values and returns an integer less than, equal to, or greater than 0 depending on whether on whether the value on the _**is less than, equal to, or greater than the other.

• greater-than; right
• spaceship; left
• equality; right
• comparison; left

Question 9: Which are valid PHP error handling keywords?

• try, throw, catch, callable
• try, yield, catch, finally
• yield, throw, catch, finally
• try, throw, catch, finally

Question 10: Which value equates to true?

• 0
• NULL
• ”
• -1

Question 11: What is missing from this code, which is supposed to create a test cookie?

• The $_REQUEST is missing.
• The $_COOKIES array is missing.
• The cookie session is missing.
• The call to setcookie () is missing.

Question 12: What is the value of $total in this calculation?

• 44
• 138
• 126
• 100

Question 13: What is the purpose of adding a lowercase “u” as a modifier after the final delimiter in a Perl-compatible regular expression?

• It makes the dot metacharacter match anything, including newline characters.
• It makes the pattern match uppercase letters.
• Both the pattern and subject string are treated as UTF-8.
• It inverts the greediness of the quantifiers in the pattern so they are not greedy by default.

Question 14: Which code snippet uses the correct syntax for creating an instance of the Pet class?

• $dog = new Pet;
• all of these answers
• $horse = (new Pet);
• $cat = new Pet ();

Question 15: What is the best way to explain what this script does?

• This script times out the session for my username.
• Cookies are starting to be stored as a result of this script.
• This script validates the username and password.
• This script is on a page that requires the user to be logged in. It checks to see if the user has a valid session.

Question 16: Which is the correct format for adding a comment to a PHP script?

• all of these answers
• #This is a comment
• /* This is a comment /
• // This is a comment

Question 17: PHP supports multiple types of loops. If you wanted to loop through a block of code if and as long a specified condition is true, which type of loop would you use?

• for
• do-while
• while
• foreach

Question 18: The ignore_user_abort () function sets whether a client disconnect should abort a script execution. In what scenario would you, as a web developer, use this function?

• You would use it to stop a user from clicking the back button if they decide not to view as a result of a click.
• You would use this function if you have some important processing to do and you do not want to stop it, even if your users click Cancel.
• You would use this function if you wanted to abort the script for all logged-in users, not just the one who disconnected.
• You would use this function if you want a PHP script to run forever.

Question 19: The PHP function array_reduce () takes a callback function that accepts a value carried over each iteration and the current item in the array, and reduces an array to a single value. Which code sample will sum and output the values in the provided array?

• 1 <?php

2 echo arrays_reduce ([1, 2, 5, 10, 11], function ($item, $carry) {

3 $carry = $carry + \$item;

4});

5?>

• 1 <?php

2 echo arrays_reduce ([1, 2, 5, 10, 11], function ($carry, $item) {

3 returns $carry = $item + \$item;

4});

5?>

• 1 <?php

2 arrays_reduce ([11 2, 5, 10, 11], function ($item, $carry) {

3 echoes $carry + $item;

4});

5?>

• 1 <?php

2 echo arrays_reduce ([1, 2, 5, 10, 11], function ($carry, $item) {

3 returns $carry += $item;

4});

5?>

Question 20: Which PHP script uses a constructor to display the string “Winter is almost over!”?

• 1 class MyClass {//Maybe

2 public function \_construct ()

3 {

4 echoes ‘Winter is almost over!’.” \n”;

5}

6}

7 \$userclass = new MyClass;

• 1 class MyClass {

2 public functions _construct ()

3 {

4 echoes ‘Winter is almost over!” \n”;

5}

6}

7 $userclass = new MyClass;

• 1 class MyClass {

2 public function \_construct ()

3 {

4 echoes ‘Winter is almost over!” \n”;

5}

6}

7 \$userclass = new MyClass;

• 1 class MyClass {

2 public functions _construct ()

3 {

4 echoes ‘Winter is almost over!’.” n”;

5}

6}

7 $userclass = MyClass;

Question 21: How might you troubleshoot a “call to undefined function” error?

• Make sure you have imported the file containing the function.
• Make sure you have spelled the function name correctly.
• all of these answers
• Make sure the function declaration is at an earlier point in the code than the function call.

Question 22: Which line could you NOT use to comment out “Space: the final frontier”?

• /_ Space: the final frontier _/
• / Space: the final frontier /
• #Space: the final frontier
• // Space: the final frontier

Question 23: What displays in a browser when the following code is written?

• The browser would display nothing due to a syntax error.
• The browser would display an error, since there are no parentheses around the string.
• The browser would display How much are the bananas?
• The browser would display an error, since there is no semicolon at the end of the echo command.

Question 24: Which operator would you use to find the remainder after division?

• /
• %
• //
• DIV

Question 25: What is the significance of the three dots in this function signature?

• It makes the function variadic, allowing it to accept as an argument an array containing an arbitrary number of values.
• It makes the function variadic, allowing it to accept an arbitrary number of arguments that are converted into an array inside the function.
• It temporarily disables the function while debugging other parts of the script.
• It’s a placeholder like a TO DO reminder that automatically triggers a notice when you run a script before completing the function definition.

Question 26: Assuming the Horse class exists, which is a valid example of inheritance in PHP?

• class Pegasus extends Horse {}
• class Alicorn imports Pegasus, Unicorn {}
• class Unicorn implements Horse {}
• class Horse inherits Unicorn {}

Question 27: Both triple === and double == can be used to **_ variables in php. If you want to hear that string “33” and the number 33 are equal, you would use ** . If you want to check if an array contains a particular string value at a particular index, you would use ___

• compare; doubles; triples
• compare; triples; doubles
• assign; triples; doubles
• assign; doubles; triples

Question 28: Your php page is unexpectedly rendering as totally blank. Which step will shed light on the problem?

• Add this code to the top of your script:ini_set(‘display_errors’,1);
• check the server error logged
• all of these answers
• make sure you are not missing any semicolons

Question 29: Which is the way to create an array of “seasons”?

• seasons=array (1=>’spring’, 2=>’summer’, 3=>’autumn’, 4=>’winter’,);
• $seasons=array (spring, summer, autumn, winter);
• $seasons=(‘spring’,’summer’,’autumn’,’winter’);
• $seasons=[‘spring’,’summer’,’autumn’,’winter’];

Question 30: Both self and this are keywords that can be used to refer to member variables of an enclosing class. The difference is that $this->member should be used for __ members and self: $ member should be used for __ members.

• private, public
• object, primitive
• non-static, static
• concrete, abstract

Question 31: What will this code print?

• euler3
• hypatia5
• hypatia3
• fibonacci4

Question 32: You are using the following code to find a users band, but it is returning false. Which step(s) would solve the problem?

• check if fav_band is included in the query string at the top of your browser
• all of the answers
• view the source of form and make sure there is an input field with the name ‘fav_band’
• print everything that has been transmitted in the request:print_r($_REQUEST);

Question 33: Which code would you use to print all the elements in an array called $cupcakes?

• all of the answers
• print_r($cupcakes);
• var_dump($cupcakes);
• foreach ($cupcakes as &$cupcake) echo $cupcake;

Question 34: What is the cause of ‘Cannot modify header information – headers already sent’?

• You are trying to modify a private value
• Semicolon missing
• Using a key on an array that does not exists
• Some html is being sent before a header () command that you are using for a redirect

Question 35: Which php control structure is used inside a loop to skip the rest of the current loops code and go back to the start of the loop for the next iteration

• else
• break
• return
• continue

Question 36: The php not operator is! Given the snippet, is there an output and what is it?

• there is an output ‘2 is an even number
• output ’21 is an odd number’
• no output. Syntax error do to missing semicolon at the end
• no output due to % in $num%2! =0

Question 37: You want to list the modules available in your PHP installation. What command should you run?

• php -h
• php info
• php -v
• php -m

Question 38: What is the value of ‘$result’ in this calculation? $result = 25 % 6;

• 4.167
• 1.5
• 4
• 1

Question 39: What is the job of the controller as a component in MVC?

• The controller handles data passed to it by the view, and also passes data to the view. It interprets data sent by the view and disperses that data to the appropriate models awaiting results to pass back to the view.
• The controller is a mechanism that allows you to create reusable code in languages such as PHP, where multiple inheritance is not supported.
• The controller presents content through the user interface, after communicating directly with the database.
• The controller handles specific tasks related to a specific area of functionality, handles business logic related to the results, and communicates directly with the database.

Question 40: Why does this code trigger an error? $string = ‘Shylock in a Shakespeare’s “Merchangt of Venice” demands his pound of flesh.’;

• Strings should always be wrapped in double quotes; and double quotes inside a string should be escaped by backslashes.
• All single and double quotes inside a string need to be escaped by backslashes to prevent a parse error.
• The opening and closing single quotes should be replaced by double quotes; and the apostrophe should be escaped by a backslash.
• The apostrophe needs to be escaped by a backslash to prevent it from being treated as the closing quote.

Question 41: A PDO object called $db has been set up to use for database operations, including user authentication. All user-related properties are set. The script line public function __construct(&$db) shows a constructor that initializes all user-related properties to ____ if no user has logged in. These parameters will be properly set by the login functions when a user logs in.

• NULL
• TRUE
• FALSE
• 0

Question 42: Assuming that $first_name and $family_name are valid strings, which statement is invalid?

• echo $first_name. ‘ ‘. $familiy_name;
• print $first_name, ‘‘, $familiy_name;
• print $first_name. ‘ ‘. $familiy_name;
• echo $first_name, ‘‘, $familiy_name;

Question 43: Which code snippet demonstrates encapsulation?

• class Cow extends Animal {

private $milk;

}

• class Cow {

public $milk;

}

$daisy = new Cow ();

$daisy->milk = “creamy”;

• class Cow {

public $milk;

function getMilk () {`

return $this->milk;

}

}

• class Cow {

private $milk;

public function getMilk () {

return $this->milk;

}

}

Question 44: The following XML document is in books.xml. Which code will output “Historical”?

• $books = simplexml_load_string(‘books.xml’); echo $books->book[0]->categories->category [1];
• $books = simplexml_load_file(‘books.xml’); echo $books->book[0]->categories->category [1];
• $books = SimpleXMLElement(‘books.xml’); echo $books->book[0]->categories->category [1];
• $books = SimpleXML(‘books.xml’); echo $books->book[0]->categories->category [1];

Question 45: Which command will extract the domain suffix (“com”) from the string $string = “https://cat-bounce.com”?

• sub ($string, -3)
• substr ($string, -3)
• substr ($string, 3)
• $string. substr (-3)

Question 46: Where is PHP code executed?

• in the client’s browser
• in the virtual machine
• in the memory of the computer viewing the webpage
• on a web server

Question 47: Which PHP variable name is invalid?

• $Double
• $double
• $_2times
• $2times

Question 48: What are the recommended settings in the PHP configuration file, php.ini, for a testing environment?

• report_errors = E_ALL

display_errors = On

• error_reporting = E_ALL

display_errors = On

• error_reporting = E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE

display_errors = Off

• error_reporting = E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE

display_errors = On

Question 49: What are getters and setters?

• Getters and setters ensure that if a data member is declared private, then it can be accessed only within the same function, not by an outside class
• Getters and setters are utility functions within PHP that allow loading from, and saving to, a database
• Getters and setters encapsulate the fields of a class by making them acccessible only through its private methods, and keep the values themselves public
• Getters and setters are methods used to declare or obtain the values of variables, usually private ones

Question 50: Why should you follow a PSR standard?

• because coding standards often vary between developers and companies
• because coding standards are monitored for compliance across developers and companies
• because there are mandatory coding standards among developers and companies
• if using certain platforms, because the PSR’s apply to those platforms only

Question 51: You are using the following code to decide if a button is clicked, but it is never returning true. Which step is most likely to shed light on the problem?

• Make sure the input field displaying the button is named ‘submit’
• Make sure you are not missing any semicolons
• Print everything in the session print_r($_SESSION);
• Look in the query string at the top of your browser to see if submit is assigned a value

Question 52: If you want to pass a formfield to another page when a button is clicked, you should use the **. If you want to store information across multiple pages, you should use the **?

• request; response
• response; request
• session; request
• request; session

Question 53: What would be a good name for this function?

• equals
• endsWith
• startsWith
• contains

Question 54: When it comes to the value of a variable, what is the difference between NULL and empty?

• NULL is a blank value; empty is the lack of a value.
• A NULL value has an allocated address in memory; empty does not.
• NULL refers to the lack of a value for an integer; empty refers to the lack of a value for a string.
• NULL is the lack of a value; empty is a blank value.

Question 55: Which is the most complete list of data types that PHP supports?

• string, integer, float, boolean, array, object, NULL, resource
• string, integer, boolean, array, object, NULL, resource
• string, integer, float, array, object, NULL, resource
• string, integer, float, boolean, array, object, NULL

Question 56: In PHP 7, What is the correct way to import multiple classes from namespace in a single declaration?!

• use myApp\myNamespace {ClassA, ClassB, ClassC};
• use myApp\myNamespace\ClassA, ClassB, ClassC;
• use myApp\myNamespace [ClassA, ClassB, ClassC];
• use myApp\myNamespace (ClassA, ClassB, ClassC);

Question 57: What is the resulting output of this for statement?

• kilometers = 0.6214 miles.

kilometers = 1.2428 miles.

kilometers = 1.8642 miles.

kilometers = 2.4856 miles.

kilometers = 3.107 miles.

• kilometers = 0.6214 miles.

kilometers = 1.2428 miles.

kilometers = 1.8642 miles

kilometers = 2.4856 miles.

kilometers = 3.107 miles.

kilometers = 3.7284 miles.

• kilometers = 1.2428 miles.

kilometers = 1.8642 miles.

kilometers = 2.4856 miles.

kilometers = 3.107 miles.

Question 58: Which PHP script finds the earliest and latest dates from an array?

• <?php

$dates = array (‘2018-02-01’, ‘2017-02-02’, ‘2015-02-03’);

echo “Latest Date: “. max($dates).” \n”;

echo “Earliest Date: “. min($dates).” \n”;

?>

• <?php

$dates = array (‘2018-02-01’, ‘2017-02-02’, ‘2015-02-03’);

echo “Latest Date: “. min($dates).” \n”;

echo “Earliest Date: “. max($dates).” \n”;

?>

• <?php

$dates = array (‘2018-02-01’, ‘2017-02-02’, ‘2015-02-03’);

echo “Latest Date: “. ($dates).” \n”;

echo “Earliest Date: “. ($dates).” \n”;

?>

• <?php

$dates = array (‘2018-02-01’, ‘2017-02-02’, ‘2015-02-03’);

echo “Latest Date:” max($dates).” \n”;

echo “Earliest Date:” min($dates).” \n”;

?>

Question 59: Which script might be used to continue a user’s search for music, across different webpages?

• <?php

start_session ();

$music = $_SESSION[‘music’];

?>

• <?php

session_start ();

$music = $SESSION[‘music’];

?>

• <?php

start_session ();

$music =$session[‘music’];

?>

• <?php

session_start ();

$music = $_SESSION[‘music’];

?>

Question 60: Imagine a web application, built following a MVC architecture, that contains a quiz and a button to score it, When the user presses the Score button, which component should handle the request?

• router
• controller
• model
• view

Question 61: A PHP “variable variable” takes the value of a variable and treats that as the name of a variable. For example, if $var is a variable then $$var is a variable variable whose name is the value of $var. Which script produces the output below, using variable variables?

• $name = “Cat”;

$name = “Dog”;

echo $name. “<br/>”;

echo $$name. “<br/>”;

echo $Dog;

• $name = “Cat”;

$$name = “Dog”;

echo $name. “<br/>”;

echo $$name. “<br/>”;

echo $Dog;

• $name = “Cat”;

$$name = “Dog”;

echo $name. “<br/>”;

echo $$name. “<br/>”;

echo $Cat;

• $name = “Cat”;

$$name = “Dog”;

echo $name. “<br/>”;

echo $name. “<br/>”;

echo $Cat;

Question 62: When should this php script be used?

• when a user goes to pay for an item online
• when items are placed in a cart
• at first registration
• at every login, for security

Question 63: What below script will print?

• 134
• 13
• 1
• 123

Question 64: Which is not a valid magic constant?

• __RESOURCE__
• __FUNCTION__
• __CLASS__
• __TRAIT__

Question 65: Why is it not recommended to make all of a class’s variables public?

• Doing so makes your code tightly coupled.
• The attribute may be accessed only by the class that defines the member.
• You will have no control over which values the attribute can take. Any external code will be able to change it without any constraint.
• You can then access the attribute only within the class itself, and by inheriting and parent classes.

Question 66: Which two functions can sanitize text and validate text formats?

• session_start () and filter_input ()
• filter_var () and filter_input ()
• preg_match () and strstr ()

Question 67: What is the correct way to include the file gravy.php in the middle of HTML code?

• <! – include file=” gravy.php”; –>
• <?php include gravy.php?>
• <?php include “gravy.php”?>
• <?php include file=” gravy.php”?>

Question 68: What are some of the main types of errors in PHP?

• notices, warnings, fatal
• runtime, logical, compile
• semantic, logical, syntax
• warnings, syntax, compile

Question 69: Your site must allow uploading of large files. What might you need to do?

• Make sure the user has the proper permissions.
• Keep a count of upload file sizes and log them.
• Change the upload_max_filesize configuration parameter.
• Be sure to use chunked transfer encoding.

Question 70: Which code will return the IP address of the client?

• $HTTP_SERVER_VARS(“REMOTE_IP”)
• $_SESSION[“REMOTE_ADDR”];
• $_SERVER[“HTTP_X_FORWARDED_FOR”]
• getenv(“REMOTE_ADDR”)

Question 71: DRY (Don’t Repeat Yourself) is a principle of software development aimed at reducing repetition of software patterns. Which choice is not a way to write DRYer code with PHP?

• inheritance
• classes
• namespacing
• dependency injection

Question 72: Describe what happens if you run this code in a testing environment:

• It displays: “Paris is the capital of France.”
• It displays:” is the capital of France.”
• It triggers a syntax error because the array keys on line 1 are in quotes.
• It triggers a syntax error because the array key on line 2 is in quotes.

Question 73: Which superglobal variable holds information about headers, paths, and script locations?

• $_SERVER
• $SERVER_VARIABLES
• $_ENV
• $GLOBALS

Question 74: What type of computer language is PHP?

• server-side scripting language
• compiled language
• machine language
• algorithmic language

Question 75: Which is not true of the toString () in PHP?

• It saves a lot of work of using setters’ methods to access the values of objects.
• It saves a lot of work of using getters methods to access the values of objects.
• It allows you to call an object and see its components as a string.
• It is automatically called when you use echo or print.

Question 76: Is the output of this code in descending order, shown vertically, and with spaces between numbers? And what is the output?

• This does not meet all the criteria because the resulting numbers will be “2461122”, which is in no particular order.
• This meets the criteria because the is present and sort () lists in descending order
• This does not meet all the criteria because the sort () function sorts an indexed array in ascending order. Thus, this code will display “2 4 6 11 22” shown vertically, but the numbers are spaced.
• does not meet all the criteria because the echo simply results in showing the array numbers in the order shown within the $numbers array, which is ascending

Question 77: Which function can you use in error handling to stop the execution of a script and is equivalent to exit ()?

• die
• return
• throw
• break

Question 78: Which are types of control structures in PHP?

• break, continue, do-while, exception, for, foreach, if, switch, throw, while
• values, operators, expressions, keywords, comments
• for, foreach, if, else, else if, switch, tries, throws, while
• if-then-else, do-while, for-each, go-to, stop-when

Question 79: Which loop displays all numbers from 1 to 10 inclusive?

• $i = 1; while ($i < 10) {echo $i++. ‘<br/>’;}
• $i = 0; while ($i <= 10) {echo $i++. ‘<br/>’;}
• while ($i &lt; = 10) {echo ++$i. ‘<br/>’;}
• $i = 0; while ($i < 10) {echo ++$i. ‘<br/>’;}

Question 80: You want to find out what day Twelfth Night falls on after Christmas 2018. Which code should you use?

• $xmas = new DateTime (‘Dec 25, 2018’); $twelfth_night = $xmas->add (new DateInterval(‘P12D’)); echo $twelfth_night->format(‘l’);
• $twelfth_night = strtotime (‘December 25, 2018 + 12 days’); echo date (‘d’, $twelfth_night);
• $twelfth_night = strtotime (‘December 25, 2018 + 12 days’); echo strftime (‘%d’, $twelfth_night);
• $xmas = new DateTime (‘Dec 25, 2018′); $twelfth_night = $xmas->add (strtotime (’12 days’)); echo $twelfth_night->format(‘D’);

Question 81: Assume that $r is 255, and $g and $b are both 0. What is the correct code to output “#ff0000”?

• printf(‘#%2x%2x%2x’, 255, 0, 0);
• printf (‘#%2X%2X%2X’, $r, 0, 0);
• printf (‘#%x%x%x’, 255, 0, 0);
• printf (‘#%02x%02x%02x’, 255, 0, 0);

Question 82: Create an associative array using $array1 as the keys and $array2 as the values:

• $array3 = array_merge ($array1, $array2);
• $array3 = array_union ($array1, $array2);
• $array3 = array_keys ($array1, $array2);
• $array3 = array_combine ($array1, $array2);

Question 83: You want to use wildcard characters when searching for records in a MySQL/MariaDB database using a PDO prepared statement. Which code should you use?

• $statement->bindValue (‘:name’, ‘%’. $_GET[‘name’]. ‘%’);
• $statement->bindValue (‘%’. $_GET[‘name’]. ‘%’, ‘:name’);
• $statement->bindParam (‘:name’, ‘%’. $_GET[‘name’]. ‘%’);
• $statement->bindParam (‘%’. $_GET[‘name’]. ‘%’, ‘:name’);

Introduction to LinkedIn PHP

LinkedIn is a valuable platform for professionals, including PHP developers, to network, find job opportunities, and share knowledge. Here are some key points related to PHP and LinkedIn:

1. Profile Optimization: Ensure your LinkedIn profile highlights your PHP skills prominently. Mention your experience with PHP frameworks (like Laravel, Symfony, etc.), specific PHP libraries you’ve used, and any projects or achievements related to PHP development.
2. Joining PHP Groups: LinkedIn has groups dedicated to PHP developers where you can join discussions, ask questions, and share insights. This is a great way to network with other PHP professionals and stay updated with industry trends.
3. Showcasing Projects: Use LinkedIn’s project section to showcase PHP projects you’ve worked on. Include descriptions, technologies used, and outcomes achieved. This can demonstrate your proficiency in PHP development to potential employers or clients.
4. Following Influencers and Companies: Follow influencers and companies in the PHP ecosystem to stay informed about new developments, job opportunities, and industry news. Engaging with their posts can also help you expand your professional network.
5. Searching for PHP Jobs: LinkedIn is a popular platform for job seekers and recruiters alike. You can use LinkedIn’s job search feature to find PHP developer positions, filter by location, experience level, and more.
6. Learning and Sharing: LinkedIn offers opportunities to learn from others through articles, posts, and shared content. You can also share your own insights, articles, or tips related to PHP development to establish yourself as a thought leader in the community.
7. Recommendations and Endorsements: Request recommendations from colleagues or supervisors who can attest to your PHP skills and work ethic. Endorsements for specific skills, such as PHP programming, can also enhance your profile’s credibility.

By actively participating in the PHP community on LinkedIn, you can enhance your professional visibility, build valuable connections, and advance your career as a PHP developer.

LinkedIn .NET Framework Exam Quiz Answers

Question 1: What is the difference between a stack and queue?

• Queues process value types by a top-down hierarchy – first in, first out (FIFO). Stacks follow this principle and insert items from the lower end while deleting ones from the top – last in, first-out (LIFO).
• Queues process value types by a top-down hierarchy-last in, first-out (LIFO). Stacks follow this principle and insert items from the lower end while deleting ones from the top-first in, first-out (FIFO).
• Stacks process value types by a top-down hierarchy – last in, first-out (LIFO). Queues follow this principle and insert items from the lower end while deleting ones from the top – first in, first-out (FIFO)
• Stacks process value types by a top-down hierarchy-first in, first out (FIFO). Queues follow this principle and insert items from the lower end while deleting ones from the top-last in, first-out (LIFO).

Question 2: Which group contains all official types of JIT compilations?

• Pre-JIT, Quick-JIT, Coll-JIT
• Before-JIT, Quick-JIT, Cool-JIT
• Pre-JIT, Quick-JIT, Normal-JIT
• Pre-JIT, Econo-JIT, Normal-JIT

Question 3: What is Kestrel?

• an iOS web server initially that was later designed to work with .NET Core
• a cross-platform web server ASP.NET Core that is included by default in ASP.NET Core project templates**
• a cross-platform, open-source web server that starts up web APIs
• a free and open-source cross-platform web server software that can communicate with IIS

Question 4: When would you use asynchronous actions?

• to release the quest thread of a I/O operation
• to capture the request thread of a I/O operation
• to avoid blocking the request thread while waits for an I/O operation
• to block the request thread if it waits for an I/O operation

Question 5: What is CoreCLR?

• CoreCLR is a component that allows the highest degree of control when coding; you can Abort (), Suspend () or Resume ().
• CoreCLR is the .NET execution engine that runs the source code. Special programs called compilers must rewrite it into MSIL.
• CoreCLR is the .NET execution engine the runs the source code. Special programs called compilers must rewrite it into IL.
• CoreCLR is the .NET execution engine in .NET Core that performs functions like garbage collection and compilation to machine code.

Question 6: When you define an abstract method, how do you use it in a derived class?

• Abstract methods cannot be used in derived classes.
• In your derived class, overload the method.
• In your derived class, override the method.
• In your derived class, declare the method as virtual.

Question 7: Which code do you use if you want to trigger a garbage collection in .NET?

• Garbage.CleanUp();
• System.GC.Clear();
• System.GC.Collect();
• Garbage.Collect();

Question 8: You want to include language elements in a program. Which design pattern best fits this objective?

• Interpreter <= correct
• Command
• Bridge
• Decorator

Question 9: What makes a strong-named assembly?

• an assembly with the version specified
• a signed assembly
• an assembly with culture information
• an assembly with the name marked as important

Question 10: What happens when you concatenate two strings?

• You cannot concatenate strings in .NET.
• The second-string object is modified so it contains the concatenated strings.
• A third string object is created containing the concatenated strings.
• The first-string object is modified so it contains the concatenated strings.

Question 11: What is a delegate?

• A delegate is an object or collection initializer that adds flexibility, readability and maintainability in C#.
• A delegate in .NET is similar to a function pointer in C or C++. Using a delegate allows the programmer to encapsulate a reference to a method inside a delegate object.
• A delegate is a collection initializer that adds flexibility, readability and maintainability in .NET.
• A delegate is an extension method. Using a delegate allows the programmer to add flexibility, readability and maintainability in .NET.

Question 12: Which is a set of features that extends the query capabilities of the .NET language syntax by adding sets of new standard query operators that allow data manipulation, regardless of the data source?

• XML
• C#
• LINQ
• XAML

Question 13: What is the single responsibility principle?

• Software entities should be open for extension, but closed for modification.
• Entities must depend on abstractions, not on concrete implementations.
• Objects in a program should be repleaceble with instances of their subtypes without altering the correctness of that programm.
• A class should have only a single responsibility – that is, only changes to one part of the software’s specification should be able to affect the specification of the class.

Question 14: When should a developer use the .NET Standard class library project type?

• when you want to increase the .NET API surface area your library can access, and allow only .NET Core apps to be compatible with your library
• when you want to increase the number of apps that are compatible with your library, and decrease the .NET API surface area your library can access
• when you want to decrease speed but have more features
• when you want to increase compilation speed and have fewer features

Question 15: What is the difference between a SDK (software development kit) and runtime in .NET Core?

• The SDK is the “virtual machine” that hosts and runs the application and abstracts all the interaction with the operating system; the runtime usually includes documentation and other help files.
• The runtime is the virtual machine that hosts and runs the application and abstracts all the interaction with the operating system; the SDK usually includes documentation and other help files.
• The runtime compiles code along with the CLR; the SDK usually includes documentation and other help files.
• The SDK compiles code along with the CLR; the runtime usually includes documentation and other help files.

Question 16: What is the Common Type System (CTS)?

• the component of CLR in which .NET Framework provides support for several languages since it contains a type system that is common with all the languages
• the component of CLI in which .NET Framework provides support for several languages since it contains a type system that is common with all the languages
• the component of CLR that allows you to map the content of a file to the logical address of an application
• the component of CLR that enables you to run multiple versions of an application or component and CLR on the same computer at the same time

Question 17: Assuming y is a value type, which is an example of boxing?

• y = (int)thisObject;
• int y = 3;
• y = (int)thisObject=;3;
• object thisObject = y;

Question 18: What is an abstract class in .NET?

• An abstract class provides a partial implementation for functionality and some abstract or virtual members that must be implemented by the inheriting entities. It can declare fields too.
• An abstract class allows developers to create new classes that reuse, extend, and modify the behavior defined in other classes.
• An abstract class is responsible for keeping track of what is actually executing and where each executing thread is.
• An abstract class declares a contract or behavior that implementing classes require. It may declare only properties, methods, and events with no access modifiers. All the declared members must be implemented.

Question 19: What is the namespace for caching information in .NET?

• System.Data. Caching;
• All.System. Caching;
• System.Runtime. Caching;
• System.Compiler. Caching;

Question 20: What is an interface in .NET?

• An interface provides a partial implementation for functionality and some abstract or virtual members that must be implemented by the inheriting entities. It can declare fields too.
• An interface is responsible for keeping track of what is actually executing and where each executing thread is.
• An interface allows developers to create new classes that reuse, extend, and modify the behavior defined in other classes.
• An interface declares a contract or behavior that implementing classes require. It may declare only properties, methods, and events with no access modifiers. All the declared members must be implemented.

Question 21: What does CAS stand for and what does it do?

• CAS stands for Code Application Secrets and it enables users to restrict, on a very granular level, what hidden code can do according to a level of trust for an application.
• CAS stands for Code Access Secrets and it enables users to restrict, on a very granular level, what hidden code can do according to a level of trust.
• CAS stands for Cognitive Access Security and it enables users to restrict security logic manipulation.
• CAS stands for Code Access Security and it enables users to restrict, on a very granular level, what managed code can do according to a level of trust.

Question 22: Which is NOT true about lambda statements?

• A statement lambda cannot return a value.
• If a statement lambda has a return value, it has to use a return statement.
• A statement lambda requires using curly braces.
• A statement lambda can have more than one statement.

Question 23: Which is NOT true about a read-only variable?

• At runtime, its value is evaluated.
• It can be either static or an instance member.
• It can be initialized at declaration only.
• It can be initialized in either the constructor or the declaration.

Question 24: What is the difference between System.String and string?

• string is used for fied-size strings in C#, while System.String is used for all the strings.
• There is no such class as System.String.
• There is none—string is an alias for System. String.
• System.String is a VB.NET data type, while string is a C# type.

Question 25: When break is used inside two nested for loops, does control come out of the inner for loop or the outer for loop?

• It breaks from only the outer loop.
• It breaks from all loops.
• It breaks from only the inner loop.
• It breaks from the outer loop after the second iteration.

Question 26: You want to separate object construction from its representation. Which design pattern best fits this objective?

• Adapter
• Bridge
• Singleton
• Builder

Question 27: You want to encapsulate a command request as an object. Which design pattern best fits this objective?

• Command
• Iterator
• Facade
• Observer

Question 28: Why would Pre-JIT be used by the .NET Framework?

• to compile only the methods that are called at runtime and store those methods in cache after execution
• to compile complete source code into native code in a single compilation cycle during deployment of the application
• to compile only the methods that are called at runtime and then store them in cache for one minute
• to compile only the methods that are called at runtime and remove them from memory after execution

Question 29: What do code contracts do?

• Code contracts are data structures that can operate on demand per requirements.
• Code contracts provide a way to specify preconditions, postconditions, and object invariants in your code.
• Code contracts contain definitions for a group of related functionalities that a class or a struct can implement.
• Code contracts contain data structures for a group of related functionalities that a class or a struct can implement.

Question 30: You must connect an app to an online identity provider using OAuth. For authentication, the app uses Web Authentication Broker object. You need to make sure the app registers with the provider. Which action do you take?

• Construct an HTTP request URI and an HTTPS request URI.
• Invoke the Get Current Application Callback Uri method and construct an HTTPS request URI.
• Invoke the Authenticate Async and GetCurrentApplicationCallbackUri methods.
• Invoke the Authenticate Async method and construct an HTTPS request URI.

Question 31: You want to create a class of which only a single instance can exist. Which design pattern best fits this objective?

• Adapter
• Singleton
• Bridge
• Decorator

Question 32: What is the dependency inversion principle?

• Objects in a program should be replaceable with instances of their subtypes without altering the correctness of that program.
• A class should have only a single responsibility—that is, only changes to one part of the software’s specification should be able to affect the specification of the class.
• Software entities should be open for extension, but closed for modification.
• Entities must depend on abstractions, not on concrete implementations.

Question 33: What is a namespace?

• a group of generic collections—in a logical hierarchy by function—that enable you to access the core functionality you need in your applications
• a group of methods—in a logical hierarchy by class—that enable you to access the core functionality you need in .NET
• a group of assemblies—in a logical hierarchy by function—that enable you to access the core functionality you need in your applications
• a group of classes, structures, interfaces, enumerations, and delegates—organized in a logical hierarchy by function that enable you to access the core functionality you need in your applications

Question 34: Which of the following selects an anonymous type?

• select new {a. Country, a. Region}
• select a
• select a. Country, a. Region
• select {a. Country, a. Region}

Question 35: Which is NOT true about a constant variable?

• At compile time, the value is evaluated.
• Only at declaration can it be initialized.
• At runtime, its value is evaluated.
• It cannot be static.

Question 36: What is the purpose of CLR?

• CLR performs various operations such as security checks, spell checks, assembly loading, and thread management. It provides a secure execution environment for the internet.
• CLR sets the rules developers must use for the components that are interlanguage compatible. CLR is reusable across all the .NET-compliant languages.
• CLR is a compiler that converts Intermediate Language to a native code.
• CLR performs various operations such as memory management, security checks, assembly loading, and thread management. It also provides a secure execution environment for applications.

Question 37: What is CIL?

• Formerly known as MSIL, CIL is a programming language that NET developers use. It represents the lowest possible level for a language that humans can still read.
• CIL is an object-oriented programming language that is a partially compiled code that .NET developers will then compile to native machine code.
• CIL is used to convert a value type to an object type.
• CIL is a compiled code library that Microsoft developed as an open specification. Developers use it for security, versioning, and deployment purposes.

Question 38: _ pattern works as a bridge between two incompatible interfaces? // wording in question is maybe changed?

• Adapter
• Bridge
• Singleton
• Builder

Question 39: Why would you use ahead-of-time (AOT) compilation?

• You can deliver a faster startup time, especially in big applications where much code executes on startup.
• You have a slow processor.
• You have little memory and disk space
• The JIT compiler does not have to do a lot of disk I/O actions, which are quite expensive.

Question 40: Which statement describes a Dispose method?

• It defines an execution environment for program code and manages the CLR
• It belongs to the IDisposable interface and is used to free resources, such as network connection and files.
• It is partially method-compiled code library for use in deployment, versioning, and security.
• It is used for encapsulation of collections tied to functions of a class and object.

Question 41: What is a thread?

• A single operation that does not return a value and that usually executes asynchronously
• the basic unit to which an operating system allocates processor time
• a series of related tasks or methods that together turn inputs into outputs
• a program that is running on your computer

Question 42: You want to add responsibilities to object dynamically. Which design pattern best fit this objective?

• Decorator
• Bridge
• Singleton
• Facade

Question 43: Which choice creates an 8-tuple containing prime numbers that are less than 20?

• var primes = Tuple.Create(2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19);
• var primes = Tuple.Create(2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 21);
• var primes = Tuple.Make(2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 20);
• var primes = Tuple.Make(2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19);

Question 44: How can you recieve form data without a model binder in a controller action?

• public IFormResult ReceivedDataByRequest () {string theName = Request.Forms[“theName”]; return View ();}
• public IActionResult ReceivedDataByRequest () {string theName = Request.Forms[“theName”]; return View ();}
• public IFormResult ReceivedDataByRequest () {string theName = Request.Form[“theName”]; return View ();}
• public IActionResult ReceivedDataByRequest () {string theName = Request.Form[“theName”]; return View ();}

Question 45: Where should you store connection string information?

• in any file within the namespace of the program
• in the view
• in configuration files
• in the database

Question 46: Why use design patterns?

• design patterns make the code more efficient with memory usage
• design patterns minimize the number of code lines when creating complex applications
• design patterns tend to be more secure and prevent code from being hacked
• design patterns help you solve issues related to software development using a proven solution, and make communication between developers more efficient

Question 47: What is a task?

• the basic unit to which an operating system allocates processor time
• a program that is running on your compiler
• a single operation that does not return a value and that usually executes asynchronously
• a series of related methods that together turn inputs into outputs

Question 48: Which choice is NOT a component of .NET Framework?

• common language JIT
• .NET framework class library
• common language runtime
• side-by-side execution

Question 49: Which statement about the this keyword is not true?

• This keyword lets a constructor call a different constructor in the same class.
• A constructor can use a base statement and this statement if the base statement comes first.
• A constructor can use one this statement at most.
• If a constructor uses this statement, its code is executed after the invoked constructor is executed.

Question 50: When should you use the .NET Core class library project type?

• when you want to increase the .NET API surface area your library can access, and allow only .NET Core apps to be compatible with your library
• when you want to increase the number of apps that are compatible with your library, and decrease the .NET API surface area your library can access
• when you want to decrease speed but have more features
• when you want to increase compilation speed and have fewer features

Question 51: Why would the .NET Framework use Normal-JIT (Just-in-Time)?

• to compile complete source code into native code in a single compilation cycle during deployment of the application
• to compile only the methods that are called at runtime and remove them from memory after execution
• to compile only the methods that are called at runtime and them store them in cache for one minute
• to compile only methods called at runtime – which are compiled the first time the methods are called and then stored in a cache to be used for execution when the same methods are called again

Question 52: What is .NET?

• .NET is a general-purpose programming language. The language has expanded significantly over time, and now has object-oriented, generic, and functional features in addition to facilities for low-level memory manipulation.
• .NET is a virtual machine that enables a computer to run programs written in several languages and compile programs to bytecode.
• .NET is an interpreted, high-level, general-purpose programming language. Its language constructs an object-oriented approach aimed at helping programmers write clear, logical code for small and large-scale projects.
• .NET is a free, cross-platform, open-source developer platform for building many different types of applications with multiple languages, editors, and libraries for web, mobile, desktop, gaming, and IoT.

Question 53: The ASP.NET Core Module is a native IIS module that plugs into the IIS pipeline to either _.

• host an ASP.NET Code app inside of the IIS worker process, called the out-of-process hosting model, or forward web requests to a backend ASP.NET Core app running the Kesrel server, called the in-process hosting model
• create IIS code the server needs in a file with the extension required, or run the IIS server in a mode compatible for ASP.NET Core
• package up your C# application and C# packages into .NET modules, or specify which of its packages should be visible to other .NET modules
• host an ASP.NET Code app inside of the IIS workes process, called the in-process hosting model, or forward web requests to a backend ASP.NET Core app running the Kestrel server, called the out-of-process hosting model

Question 54: In the code below, what is the difference between RenderPartial and RenderAction?

@{

Html.RenderAction(“Add”);

Html.RenderPartial(“Add”);

}

• RenderPartial will call an action method of the current controller and render a result inline. RenderAction will render the specified view inline without calling any action method.
• RenderAction will call an action method of the current model and render a result inline. RenderPartial will render the specified view inline without calling any action method.
• RenderAction will call an action method of the current controller and render a result inline. RenderPartial will render the specified view inline without calling any action method.
• RenderPartial will call an action method of the current model and render a result inline. RenderAction will render the specified view inline without calling any action method.

Question 55: What is the Liskov substitution principle?

• Many client-specific interfaces are better than one general-purpose interface.
• Objects in a program should be replaceable with instances of their subtypes without altering the correctness of that program.
• A class should have only a single responsibility — that is, only changes to one part of the software’s specification should be able to affect the specification of the class.
• Software entities should be open for extension, but closed for modification.

Question 56: What method do you use to explicitly kill a user’s session?

• Session.Timeout()
• Session.Abandon()
• Session.KillAll()
• Session.Remove()

Question 57: Which choice best describes the difference between globalization and localization?

• Localization enables the .NET runtime to provide services to managed code so language compilers can emit metadata and references in your code. Globalization reverses this process.
• Globalization enables the .NET runtime to provide services to managed code so language compilers can emit metadata and references in your code. Localization reverses this process.
• Localization involves designing and developing a world-ready app that supports localized interfaces and regional data for users in multiple cultures. Globalization is the process of translating an application’s resources into versions for each culture that the application will support.
• Globalization involves designing and developing a world-ready app that supports localized interfaces and regional data for users in multiple cultures. Localization is the process of translating an application’s resources into versions for each culture that the application will support.

Question 58: What does CIL stand for?

• C# Interpreted Language
• Common Intermediate Language
• Commonly Interpreted Language
• C# Intermediate Language

Question 59: Which choice best describes the difference between a namespace and an assembly?

• Namespace contains code to form MSIL (Microsoft Intermediate Language). An assembly contains a set of unique names.
• Namespace is the logical naming decided at design time by the developer. Scope for a particular type is defined at run time using an assembly.
• A namespace has logical units that are physically grouped together. An assembly does not have any classification.
• A namespace has logical units that are physically grouped together for assemblies. Assembly classes are available in your program and will be logically grouped.

Question 60: What is a tuple?

• A data structure that has a specific number and sequence of elements
• An object to store multiple variables of the same type in an array data structure
• A group of classes designed specifically for grouping together objects and performing tasks on them
• An array whose elements are jagged

Question 61: What does IL stand for?

• Intermediate Language
• Intelligent Language
• Intelligent Linq
• Interpreted Language

Question 62: You want to create an instance of several families of classes. Which design pattern best fits this objective?

• Decorator
• Singleton
• Abstract Factory
• Bridge

Question 63: Which statement about a read-only variable is not true?

• It can be either static or an instance member.
• At run time, its value is evaluated.
• It can be initialized in either the constructor or the declaration.
• It can be initialized at declaration only.

Question 64: What is the interface segregation principle?

• Many client-specific interfaces are better than one general-purpose interface.
• Software entities should be open for extension, but closed for modification.
• A class should have only a single responsibility – that is, only changes to one part of the software’s specification should be able to affect the specification of the class.
• Objects in a program should be replaceable with instances of their subtypes without altering the correctness of that program.

Question 65: Which choice is a set of features that extends the query capabilities of the .NET language syntax by adding sets of new standard query operators that allow data manipulation, regardless of the data source?

• XAML
• C#
• XML
• LINQ

Question 66: Why would the .NET Framework use Econo-JIT (Just-inTime)?

• to compile only the methods that are called at run time and then store them in cache for one minute
• to compile only methods called at run time – which are compiled the first time the methods are called and then stored in cache to be used for execution when the same methods are called again
• to compile complete source code into native code in a single compilation cycle during deployment of the application
• to compile only the methods that are called at run time and remove them from memory after execution

Question 67: What is the difference between a heap and a stack?

• The stack contains stored value types; the heap contains stored reference types.
• The heap is stored value types; the stack is stored reference types.
• The heap is stored object types; the stack is stored class types.
• The stack is stored object types; the heap is stored class types.

Question 68: How do you make sure that the garbage collector is done running when you call GC. Collect ()?

• There is no way to find this out.
• You cannot. GC. Collect () is a blocking method, and will return only once the garbage collector is done running.
• by calling GC. WaitForFullGCComplete ()
• by calling GC. WaitForPendingFinalizers ()

Question 69: What does JIT do in .Net?

• JIT is used for deployment, versioning, and security.
• JIT translates the IL code to an assembly code and uses the CPU architecture of the target machine to execute a .NET application.
• JIT compiles to C# code using .NET environment properties.
• JIT is used for deployment, versioning, and security, and forces the computer’s processor to execute the native machine code.

Introduction to LinkedIn .NET Framework

LinkedIn, like many large-scale web applications, has historically used the .NET Framework for its backend services and various components. The .NET Framework is a robust and mature platform developed by Microsoft, widely adopted for building web applications, services, and other types of software.

Here are some aspects where LinkedIn might have used the .NET Framework:

1. Backend Services: LinkedIn’s backend services, responsible for handling user authentication, data storage, messaging, and other core functionalities, could have been developed using ASP.NET, which is part of the .NET Framework.
2. APIs: LinkedIn likely exposes APIs for integration with third-party services and applications. These APIs could be built using ASP.NET Web API, a framework within the .NET ecosystem that facilitates building RESTful services.
3. Job Scheduler: LinkedIn might use the Task Scheduler within the .NET Framework to manage background jobs, such as processing updates, notifications, or analytics tasks.
4. Caching: Caching mechanisms are crucial for performance in large-scale applications like LinkedIn. The .NET Framework includes caching solutions such as ASP.NET Output Cache and in-memory caching mechanisms that LinkedIn could utilize.
5. Windows Services: For tasks that run independently of user interaction, LinkedIn could employ Windows Services developed using .NET, which can run in the background on servers.
6. SQL Server Integration: Many .NET applications, including those using the .NET Framework, integrate closely with SQL Server for data storage and retrieval. LinkedIn might use Entity Framework, a popular ORM (Object-Relational Mapper) within the .NET ecosystem, to interact with SQL Server databases.
7. Performance Monitoring: LinkedIn would likely use tools and libraries from the .NET ecosystem for monitoring application performance, identifying bottlenecks, and optimizing code.
8. Security: .NET Framework provides robust security features such as authentication, authorization, and encryption, which LinkedIn would leverage to protect user data and ensure secure communication.

However, it’s important to note that LinkedIn’s technology stack evolves over time. As of the current date, they might be transitioning towards .NET Core (now .NET 6 and later .NET 7), which is a cross-platform successor to the .NET Framework, offering enhanced performance, scalability, and support for modern development practices.

LinkedIn C++ Exam Quiz Answers

Question 1: Which of the following is a reason why using this line is considered a bad practice? (Alternative: Why is using this line considered a bad practice?)

• The compiled code is always bigger because of all of the imported symbols.
• If the code uses a function defined in two different libraries with the same prototype but possibly with different implementations, there will be a compilation error due to ambiguity.
• It automatically includes all header files in the standard library (cstdint, cstdlib, cstdio, iostream, etc).
• It causes the compiler to enforce the exclusive inclusion of header files belonging to the standard library, generating compilation error when a different header file is included.

Question 2: What is the smallest size a variable of the type child_t may occupy in memory?

• 7 bits.
• 25 bytes.
• 1 bit.
• 1 byte.

Question 3: Which of the following shows the contents of vector v1 and v2 after running this code?

• Error
• v1: {1,2,3,4}; v2:{5};
• v1: {1,2,3,4,5}; v2: {1,2,3,4,5};
• v1: {1,2,3,4}; v2: {1,2,3,5};

Question 4: Which of the following is a true statement about the difference between pointers and iterators?

• While pointers are variable that hold memory address, iterators are generic functions used to traverse containers. This function allows the programmer to implement read and write code as the container is traversed.
• Incrementing an iterator always means access the next element in the container (if any), no matter the container. Incrementing the pointer means pointing to the next element in memory, not always the next element.
• Pointers are variables that hold memory address whereas iterator are unsigned integers that refers to offsets in arrays.
• All iterator are implemented with pointers so all iterators are pointers but not all pointers are iterators.

Question 5: What’s a benefit of declaring the parameter as a const reference instead of declaring it as a regular object?

• The argument is passed as a reference, so the function receives a copy that can be modified without affecting the original value.
• The argument is passed as a reference, so if the passed my_array object is large, the program will require less time and memory.
• Actually, objects can’t be passed as regular variables because they require a constructor call. Therefore, a const reference is the only way to pass class instances to functions.
• There are no benefits because a reference and an object are treated as the same thing.

Question 6: What’s the storage occupied by u1?

• 4 bytes
• 7 bytes
• 8 bytes
• 2 bytes

Question 7: Which of the following operators is overloadable?

• ?:
• new
• ::
• .

Question 8: Which of the following shows the contents of vector pointed by v1 and v2 after running this code?

• *v1: {1,2,3,4}; *v2:{5};
• *v1: {1,2,3,4,5}; *v2: {1,2,3,4,5};
• Error
• *v1: {1,2,3,4}; *v2: {1,2,3,5};

Question 9: Which of the following is not a difference between a class and a struct?

• Because structs are part of the C programming language, there are some complexities between C and C++ structs. This is not the case with classes.
• Classes may have member functions; structs are private.
• The default access specifier for members of struct is public, whereas for member of class, it is private.
• Template type parameters can be declared with classes, but not with the struct keyword.

Question 10: Suppose you need to keep a data struct with permission to access some resource based on the days of the week, but you can’t use a bool variable for each day. You need to use one bit per day of the week. Which of the following is a correct implementation of a structure with bit fields for this application?

• A

typedef struct {

int sunday:1;

int monday:1;

// more days

int friday:1;

int saturday:1;

} weekdays;

• B

typedef char [7]: weekdays;

• C

typedef struct {

bit sunday:1;

bit monday:1;

// more days

bit friday:1;

bit saturday:1;

} weekdays;

• D

typedef struct {

bit sunday;

bit monday;

// more days

bit friday;

bit saturday;

} weekdays;

Question 11: What is an lvalue?

• It’s a constant expression, meaning an expression composed of constants and operations.
• It’s an expression that represents an object with an address.
• It’s an expression suitable for the left-hand side operand in a binary operation.
• It’s a location value, meaning a memory address suitable for assigning to a pointer or reference.

Question 12: What does auto type specifier do in this line of code (since C++11)?

• It specifies that the type of x will be deduced from the initializer – in this case, double.
• It specifies that the type of x is automatic meaning that if can be assigned different types of data throughout the program.
• It specifies that x is a variable with automatic storage duration.
• It specifies that more memory will be allocated for x in case it needs more space, avoiding loss of data due to overflow.

Question 13: A class template is a _?

• class written with the generic programming paradigm, specifying behavior in terms of type parameter rather than specific type.
• blank superclass intended for inheritance and polymorphism.
• lass that only consists of member variable, with no constructor, destructor nor member functions.
• skeleton source code for a class where the programmer has to fill in specific parts to define the data types and algorithms used.

Question 14: What is the ternary operator equivalent to this code snippet?

• y=a? b:x;
• y=if (x? a: b);
• y=(x&a)? a:(x&b)? b:0;
• y=x? a: b;

Question 15: What is the meaning of the two parts specified between parentheses in a range-based for loop, separated by a colon?

• The first is a variable declaration that will hold an element in a sequence. The second is the sequence to traverse.
• The first is an iterator, and the second is the increment value to be added to the iterator.
• The first is the iterating variable. The second is an std: pair that specifies the range (start and end) in which the variable will iterate.
• The first is a container object. The second is an std: pair that specifies the range (start and end) in which the elements will be accessed within the loop.

Question 16: What results from executing this code snippet?

• Part A executes because x==5 (true) and y==2 (true), thus the AND operation evaluates as true.
• Part B executes because (x & y) results in 0, or false.
• Part A executes because (x & y) results in a nonzero value, or true.
• Part B executes because the statement (x & y) is invalid, thus false.

Question 17: What is a valid definition for the get_length function, which returns the length of a null-terminated string?

• A

int get_length (char *str) {

int count=0;

while(str[count++]);

return count-1;

}

• B

int get_length (char *str) {

int count=0;

while (str! =NULL) {

count++;

str++;

}

return count;

}

• C

int get_length (char *str) {

int count=0;

while((*str) ++)

count++;

return count;

}

• D

int get_length (char *str) {

int count=0;

while(str++)

count++;

return count;

}

Question 18: Which STL class is the best fit for implementing a collection of data that is always ordered so that the pop operation always gets the greatest of the elements? Suppose you are interested only in push and pop operations.

• std: list
• std: vector
• std: priority_queue
• std: map

Question 19: What is the meaning of the three sections specified between parentheses in a for loop separated by semicolons?

• The first is the iterating variable name, the second is the number of times to iterate, and the third is the desired increment or decrement (specified with a signed integer).
• The first is the initialization block, the second is the condition to iterate, and the third is the increment block.
• The first is the iterating variable, the second is the container in which it should operate, and the third is an exit condition to abort at any time.
• The first is the iterating variable name, the second is the starting value for the iterating variable, and the third is the stop value (the last value plus one).

Question 20: What is printed from this code?

vector<int> v (22);

bool b = (v [6]);

printf (“%d”, b);

• False
• 0
• 1
• This code has an error.

Question 21: What is true about the variable named ptr?

• void *ptr;
• It is a pointer initialized at NULL.
• It is a pointer to a void function.
• That declaration causes a compiler error, as pointers must specify a type.
• It is a pointer to a value with no specific type, so it may be cast to point to any type.

Question 22: What is the difference between a public and a private class member?

• Public members are the same as global variables, so every part of the code has access to them. Private members are the same as automatic variables, so only their class has access to them.
• Public members are made accessible to any running application. Private members are made accessible only to the application where the object is instantiated.
• Public members will be compiled as shared variables in a multithreaded environment. Private members will be compiled as Thread-local variables.
• Public members can be accessed by any function. Private members can be accessed only by the same class’s member functions and the friends of the class.

Question 23: What is the value of x after running this code?

int x=10, a=-3;

x=+a;

• 3
• 7
• -3
• 13

Question 24: Which statement is true? (LinkedIn)

• Only classes can have member variables and methods.
• C++ supports multiple inheritance.
• C++ supports only single inheritance.
• Only structs can inherit.

Question 25: Consider a pointer to void, named ptr, which has been set to point to a floating-point variable g. Which choice is a valid way to dereference ptr to assign its pointed value to a float variable f later in the program?

float g;

void *ptr=&g;

• float f=*(float)ptr;
• float f= (float *) ptr;
• float f=(float)*ptr;
• float f=*(float *) ptr;

Question 26: What is the. * Operator and what does it do?

• It is the same as the class member access operator, or arrow operator (->), which allows you to access a member of an object through a pointer to the object.
• It is the pointer to member operator, and it allows you to access a member of an object through a pointer to that specific class member.
• It is the member access with address of operator, which returns the address of a class or struct member.
• It is a combination of the member access operator (.) and the dereference operator (*), so it allows you to access the object that a member pointer points to.

Question 27: For these declarations, which choice shows four equivalent ways to assign the character “y” in the string to a char variable c?

char buff [50] = “strings as arrays of characters are fun!”

char *str = buff+11;

char c;

• A

c = buff [16];

c = str [5];

c = *(buff+16);

c = *(str+5);

• B

c = *(buff [15]);

c = *(str [4]);

c = buff+15;

c = str+4;

• C

c = buff [15];

c = str [4];

c = *(buff+15);

c = *(str+4);

• D

c = *(buff [16]);

c = *(str [5]);

c = buff+16;

c = str+5;

Question 28: Which choice is the correct declaration for the class named Dog, derived from the Animal class?

class Animal {

//….

}

• A

class Dog: public Animal {

//….

};

• B

class Dog: public Animal {

//….

};

• C

public class Animal: Dog {

//….

};

• D

public class Dog extends Animal {

//….

};

Question 29: How can C++ code call a C function?

• by simply calling the C code
• there is no way for C++ to call a C function
• by using extern “C”
• by importing the source C code

Question 30: Which choice is not a valid type definition of a structure that contains x and y coordinates as integers, and that can be used exactly as shown for the variable named center?

coord center;

center.x = 5;

center.y = 3;

• A

typedef struct coord {

int x;

int y;

};

• B

typedef struct coord {

int x;

int y;

} coord;

• C

typedef struct {

int x;

int y;

} coord;

• D

struct coord {

int x;

int y;

};

typedef struct coord coord;

Question 31: Which choice does not produce the same output as this code snippet? Assume the variable i will not be used anywhere else in the code.

for (i=1; i<10; i++) {

cout<<i<<endl;

}

• A

i=1;

while(i<10) {

cout<<++i<<endl;

}

• B

for (int i: {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}) {

cout<<i<<endl;

}

• C

i = 1;

do {

cout<<i++<<endl;

} while(i<10);

• D

i = 1;

loop:

cout<<i++<<endl;

if(i<10) goto loop;

Question 32: What does this part of a main.cpp file do?

#include “library.h”

• It causes the toolchain to compile all the contents of library.h so that its executable code is available when needed by the final application.
• It cherry picks library.h for the declarations and definitions of all data and functions used in the remainder of the source file main.cpp, finally replacing the #include directive by those declarations and definitions.
• It informs the linker that some functions or data used in the source file main.cpp are contained in library.h, so that they can be called in run time. This is also known as dynamic linking.
• It causes the replacement of the #include directive by the entire contents of the source file library.h. This is similar to a Copy-Paste operation of library.h into main.cpp.

Question 33: Which choice is an include guard for the header file my_library.h?

• A

#ifdef MY_LIBRARY_H

#define MY_LIBRARY_H

// my_library.h content

#endif /* MY_LIBRARY_H */

• B

#ifndef MY_LIBRARY_H

#define MY_LIBRARY_H

// my_library.h content

#endif /* MY_LIBRARY_H */

• C

#ifdef MY_LIBRARY_H

#undef MY_LIBRARY_H

// my_library.h content

#endif /* MY_LIBRARY_H */

• D

#define MY_LIBRARY_H

#include MY_LIBRARY_H

// my_library.h content

#undef MY_LIBRARY_H

Question 34: What’s wrong with this definition when using a pre-C++11 compiler?

std: vector<std: vector<int>> thematrix;

• There’s nothing wrong with it.
• An std: vector cannot contain more std: vector containers as its elements.
• The correct syntax should be: std: vector [std: vector[int]] thematrix;
• >> is parsed as the shift-right operator, and thus results in a compile error.

Question 35: What is the statement below equivalent to?

sprite->x

• sprite.x
• sprite. *x
• (*sprite).x
• *Sprite.x

Question 36: Consider a class named complexNumber. Which code will result in an equivalent object?

complexNumber (float real, float im)

: real_part(real),

im_part(im) {}

• A

complexNumber (float real, float im) {

this->real = real_part;

this->im = im_part;

}

• B

complexNumber (float real, float im) {

this->real_part(real);

this->im_part(im);

}

• C

complexNumber (float real, float im) {

this->real_part = real;

this->im_part = im;

}

• D

complexNumber (float real, float im) {

this->real_part = &real;

this->im_part = &im;

}

Question 37: What is the result from executing this code snippet?

bool x=true, y=false;

if (~x || y) {

/*part A*/

}

else {

/*part B*/

}

• Part A executes because the expression (~x || y) always results in true if y==false.
• Part B executes because the statement (~x || y) is invalid, thus false.
• Part A executes because ~x is not zero, meaning true.
• Part B executes because ~x is false and y is false, thus the OR operation evaluates as false.

Question 38: What is the output of this code?

float values [5] = {0.54f, 2.71828f, 3.14159f, 5.499999f, 10.0f};

for (auto f: values)

printf (“%i “, (int)(f+0.5f));

• 0.54 2.71828 3.14159 5.499999 10.0
• 1 3 4 6 11
• 0 2 3 5 10
• 1 3 3 5 10

Question 39: Which of the following STL classes is the best fit for implementing a phonebook? Suppose each entry contains a name and a phone number, with no duplicates, and you want to have lookup by name.

• std: priority_queue
• std: list
• std: vector
• std: map

Question 40: What does this program do?

#include <iostream>

#include <fstream>

using namespace std;

int main () {

ifstream file1(“text1.txt”, ios: binary);

ofstream file2(“text2.txt”, ios: binary);

file2 << file1.rdbuf();

}

• It renames text1.txt to text2.txt.
• It makes a directory called text2.txt and moves text1.txt there.
• It copies the contents of text1.txt into text2.txt – i.e., it makes a copy of text1.txt, named text2.txt.
• It appends the contents of text1.txt into text2.txt – i.e., replaces the contents of text2.txt by the concatenation of text2.txt and text1.txt.

Question 41: Which of the following is not a consequence of declaring the member variable count of my_class as static?

class my_class {

public: static int count;

}

• The variable cannot be modified by any part of the code in the same application or thread. However, other threads may modify it.
• The variable exists even when no objects of the class have been defined so it can be modified at any point in the source code.
• The variable is allocated only once, regardless of how many objects are instantiated because it is bound to the class itself, not its instances.
• All objects that try to access their count member variable actually refer to the only class-bound static count variable.

Question 42: What is the assumed type of a constant represented in the source code as 0.44?

• double
• long float
• long double
• float

Question 43: What is the output of this piece of code?

int8_t a=200;

uint8_t b=100;

if(a>b)

std: cout<< “greater”;

else

std: cout<< “less”;

• There is no output because there is an exception when comparing an int8_t with a uint8_t.
• greater
• less
• There is no output because there is a compiler error.

Question 44: What is an appropriate way of removing my_object as shown below?

my_class *my_object = new my_class ();

• delete(my_object);
• free(my_object);
• The garbage collector will destroy the object eventually.
• Exiting the scope will destroy the object.

Question 45: What is the correct way to call the count member function for the object pointer called grades?

class my_array {

public:

int count ();

}; // … more members above

int main () {

my_array *grades = new my_array ();

}; // … more code above

• grades. count ();
• my_array->count ();
• grades->count ();
• my_array. count ();

Question 46: What would be the output of this code?

int i0=4, i1=6, i2=8;

int& nums [3] = {i2, i0, i1};

std: cout<<nums [0] <<nums [1] <<nums [2];

• There is no output. The code causes a compiler error because nums is an array of references, which is illegal.
• 846
• The output is the addresses of i2, i0, and i1, in that order, with no spaces.
• 468

Question 47: What does this function do?

auto buff = new char [50];

std: memset(buff,20,50);

• It declares a memory buffer named buff that starts at address 20 and ends at address 70.
• It sets all bits in the array named buffer from its element at index 20 to its element at index 50.
• It writes the value 20 in every memory address from buff to buff+49.
• It declares a memory buffer named buff that starts at address 20 and ends at address 50.

Question 48: Consider a class named CustomData. Which choice is a correct declaration syntax to overload the postfix ++ operator as a class member?

• CustomData& operator++ ();
• void operator++(CustomData);
• CustomData operator++(CustomData);
• CustomData operator++(int);

Question 49: You want to sort my_array, declared below. Which choice is the correct call to std: sort, using a lambda expression as the comparison function?

std: array<uint32_t, 50> my_array;

• A

std: sort (my_array. begin (), my_array.end (),

[] (uint32_t a, uint32_t b) {

return a < b;

})

• B

lambda (uint32_t a, uint32_t b) {

return a < b;

}

std: sort (my_array. begin (), my_array.end (), lambda);

• C

std: sort (my_array. begin (), my_array.end (),

lambda (uint32_t a, uint32_t b) {

return a < b;

})

• D

lambda (uint32_t a, uint32_t b) {

return a < b;

}

std: sort (my_array. begin (), my_array.end (), &lambda);

Question 50: Which choice is the most reasonable implementation of the function std: mutex: lock () by using std: mutex: try_lock ()?

• A

void std: mutex: lock () {

while (! this->try_lock ());

}

• B

void std: mutex: lock () {

return (this->try_lock ());

}

• C

void std: mutex: lock () {

while (1)

this->try_lock ();

}

• D

void std: mutex: lock () {

while(this->try_lock ());

}

Question 51: What is the purpose of a destructor?

• It allows the programmer to write the necessary code to free the resources acquired by the object prior to deleting the object itself.
• It deletes an object. One example of a destructor is the delete () function.
• It terminates a program. This may be achieved as a regular function call or as an exception.
• There are no destructors in C++.

Question 52: Which STL class is the best fit for implementing a phonebook? Suppose each entry contains a name and a phone number, with no duplicates, and you want to have lookup by name.

• std: priority_queue
• std: map
• std: vector
• std: list

Question 53: What is the main difference between these two Functions?

std: mutex: lock ()

std: mutex: try_lock ()

• lock () has a higher privilege over try_lock (). This means that you have a better chance of acquiring a mutex with lock ().
• Both attempts to acquire a lock, but lock () blocks if the mutex is not available, whereas try_lock () returns whether the mutex is available or not.
• lock () enforces preemption, whereas try_lock () suggests preemption.
• If the mutex is not available, try_lock () returns with a corresponding code, whereas lock () snatches the mutex from the thread that currently has it.

Question 54: What is one benefit of declaring the parameter as a const reference instead of declaring it as a regular object?

int median (const my_array& a)

• Actually, objects cannot be passed as regular variables, because they require a constructor call. Therefore, a const reference is the only way to pass class instances to functions.
• There are no benefits because a reference and an object are treated as the same thing.
• The const qualifier Forbids the code to modify the argument, so the programmer can rest assured that the source object will remain unchanged.
• The argument is passed as a reference, so the Function receives a copy that can be modified without affecting the original variable.

Question 55: What is an include guard?

• a preprocessor directive that prevents inconsistent behaviors in lines that contain the #ifdef, #ifndef, or #elif directives
• a compiler option that prevents the user code from including additional libraries
• a preprocessor statement that prevents a source file from being included more than once in a project
• a library that adds safety features such as mutexes, watchdog timers, and assertions to the project

Question 56: What would be the correct declaration of a default constructor for a class named Sprite?

• public:

Sprite ();

• private:

void Sprite ();

• public:

void Sprite ();

• private:

Sprite ();

Question 57: What is the purpose of this line in a header file?

#pragma once

• to restrict the use of its contents to only one source file
• to tell the compiler that only one variable can be instantiated from the classes or types contained in this header file
• to help the compiler finish faster by assuring that only one compiler pass is neccessary for the code included in this header file
• to make the compiler parse that header file only once, even if it is included multiple times in the source

Question 58: What is a variable of type double?

• a 2-tuple
• an integer numbers
• a floating point numbers
• a string with more than 255 characters

Question 59: Consider this function declaration of is_even, which takes in an integer and returns true if the argument is an even number and false otherwise. Which declarations are correct for overloaded versions of that function to support floating point numbers and string representations of numbers?

bool is_even(int);

• bool is_even (float f); bool is_even (char *str);
• bool is_even (float f); bool is_even (char str);
• bool is_even_float (float f); bool is_even_str (char *str);
• float is_even (float f); char *is_even (char *str);

Question 60: Other than shifting bits to the left, what is the << oprator used for?

• shifting characters to the left in a string.
• inserting characters into an output stream like std: cout.
• comparing floating point numbers as less-than.
• assigning a variable to a reference.

Question 61: Does this code cause a compiler error? If so, why, and if not, what is child_t?

typedef struct {

unsigned int age: 4;

unsigned char gender: 1;

chart: 0;

unsigned int size: 2;

} child_t;

• Yes, it causes a compiler error because the colon character is not allowed in struct definitions.
• and child_t is a type defined as a structure with bit fields. It has 4 bits for age and 1 bit for gender in the first byte, and 2 bits for size in the second byte.
• Yes, it causes a compiler error because there is an unnamed field.
• Yes, it causes a compiler error because one field is defined as having a size of 0.

Question 62: Which choice is a reason to specify the type of a pointer instead of using void *, which works as a pointer ro any type?

• The compiler needs the dara type to make sure that the pointer is not going to be used on illegal non-pointable types such as functions, labels, pointers, and reference.
• void * does not work for any type. The language does not allow assigning anything other than void to a pointer to void *.
• The compiler needs the data type to know how much memory to allocate for the pointer, because different data types require different pointer lengths.
• Yes, it causes a compiler error because one field is defined as having a size of 0.

Question 63: What is wrong with this piece of code?

#include <iostream>

char str [20]’

int main () {

std: cout << “What’s your name? “;

str << std: cin

std: cout << “Hello,” << str;

return 0;

}

• The main function is supposed to have a void return type.
• std: cin and std: cout are invalid. The correct names for the character input and output streams are cin and cout.
• The address of str is supposed to be used. That is &str instead of str.
• The input operator flow is inverted. it should start from std: cin and then flow (>>) into str.

Question 64: What is this expression equivalent to?

A->B->C->D

• A.B.C.D
• *A.*B.*C.*D
• &A.&B.&C.&D
• *(*((*A). B).C). D

Question 65: Which statement is true when declaring the member variable count as static?

class my_class {

public: static int count;

};

• All objects that try to access their count member variable actually refer to the only class-bound static count variable.
• The variable is allocated only once, regardless of how many objects are instantiated, because it is bound to the class itself, not its instances.
• The variable existd when no objects of the class have been defined, so it can be modified at any point in the source code.
• The variable cannot be modified by any part of the code in the same application or thread. However, other threads may modify it.

Question 66: When placed in a valid execution context, which statement will dynamically allocate memory from the heap for an integer of value 11?

• int anInt = new int (11);
• int* anInt = new int [11];
• int anInt = new int [11];
• int* anInt = new int (11);

Question 67: Which choice best describes the type long?

• an integer number of at least 32 bits
• a string with more than 255 characters
• a pointer
• a 64-bit floating point number

Question 68: Which of the following types has the closest functionality to a class?

• struct
• union
• enum
• namespace

Question 69: Given these records in a map, how will you update the value for the key “Sinead” to 22?

• marks[“Sinead”] = 22
• marks[“Sinead”].22
• marks[“Sinead”] -> 22
• marks[“Sinead”].value = 22

Question 70: Why can the std: sort receive a function object as one of its parameters?

• The std: sort function is a template. The programmer is free to enter the sorting algorithm in a function object as an argument.
• Actually, std: sort takes only one argument, which is the container to be sorted.
• std: sort operates on a template container. The compiler does not know how to relationally compare the values it contains, so a function must be provided to do the comparison.
• std: sort will use the parameter function as an error handler. The function will be called if an error occurs.

Question 71: What will happen when you execute this code snippet?

#include <iostream>

int main () {

float a = 5.51;

int b = static_cast<int>(a);

std: cout << b;

}

• 6 will be printed on standard output, with no compilation warnings generated.
• 5 will be printed on standard output, with no compilation warnings generated.
• 6 will be printed on standard output, with compilation warnings generated.
• 5 will be printed on standard output, with compilation warnings generated.

Introduction to LinkedIn C++

LinkedIn can be a great platform for highlighting your skills and experience in C++. Here are some tips for optimizing your LinkedIn profile for C++:

1. Profile Headline:

• Include “C++ Developer” or “C++ Programmer” prominently in your headline to immediately signal your expertise.

2. Summary:

• Write a brief summary that emphasizes your experience with C++. Mention your years of experience, key projects, and any specialties within C++ development.
• Highlight any certifications, awards, or recognitions related to C++.

3. Experience:

• Detail your work experience related to C++. Use bullet points to describe projects you’ve worked on, technologies used (e.g., STL, Boost), and any specific accomplishments or challenges you’ve tackled.
• Quantify your achievements where possible (e.g., improved performance by X%, delivered projects ahead of schedule).

4. Skills:

• List C++ as one of your primary skills. LinkedIn allows you to list multiple skills, so include related skills like “Object-Oriented Design,” “Multithreading,” “STL,” “Boost,” etc.
• Endorsements from colleagues can strengthen your credibility in these areas.

5. Education:

• Include your educational background, especially if it’s relevant to your C++ expertise (e.g., Computer Science degree).

6. Projects:

• If possible, showcase specific C++ projects you’ve worked on. Provide descriptions, your role, and outcomes achieved.

7. Recommendations:

• Request recommendations from colleagues or supervisors who can speak to your C++ skills and work ethic. These endorsements add credibility to your profile.

8. Groups and Interests:

• Join LinkedIn groups related to C++ programming or software development in general. Participate in discussions and share insights to showcase your knowledge.

9. Updates and Posts:

• Share articles, insights, or updates related to C++ programming. This demonstrates your engagement and passion for the field.

10. Certifications:

• If you have any certifications specifically in C++ (e.g., from Microsoft or other recognized bodies), list them in the certifications section.

11. Languages:

• If you’re proficient in other languages relevant to your C++ work (e.g., Python, Java), mention them to highlight your versatility.

By optimizing these sections of your LinkedIn profile for C++, you’ll increase your visibility to recruiters and potential employers looking for professionals with your expertise.

LinkedIn CSS Exam Quiz Answers

Question 1: In the following example, which selector has the highest specificity ranking for selecting the anchor link element?

ul li a

a

.example a

div a

• .example a
• div a
• a
• ul li a

Question 2: Using an attribute selector, how would you select an element with a “tittle” attribute?

• a[title] {…}
• a > title {…}
• a. title {…}
• a=title {…}

Question 3: CSS grid and flexbox are now becoming a more popular way to create page layouts. However, floats are still commonly used, especially when working with an older code base, or it you need to support older browser version. What are two valid techniques used to clear floats?

• Use the “clearfix hack” on the floated element and add a float to the parent element.
• Use the overflow property on the floated element or the “clearfix hack” on either the floated or parent element.
• Use the “clearfix hack” on the floated element or the overflow property on the parent element.
• Use the “clearfix hack” on the parent element or use the overflow property with a value other than “visible.”

Question 4: What element(s) do the following selectors match to?

1) .nav {…} 2) nav {…} 3) #nav {…}

• 1. An element with an ID of “nav”

2. A nav element

3. An element with a class of “nav”

• They all target the same nav element.
• 1. An element with a class of “nav”

2. A nav element

3. An element with an id of “nav”

• 1. An element with a class of “nav”

2. A nav element

3. A div with an id of “nav”

Question 5: When adding transparency styles, what is the difference between using the opacity property versus the background property with a rgba () value?

• Opacity specifies the level of transparency of the child elements. Background with a rgba () value applies transparency to the background color only.
• Opacity applies transparency to the background color only. Background with a rgba () value specifies the level of transparency of an element, as a whole, including its content.
• Opacity specifies the level of transparency of an element, including its content. Background with a rgba () value applies transparency to the background color only.
• Opacity applies transparency to the parent and child elements. Background with a rgba () value specifies the level of transparency of the parent element only.

Question 6: What is true of block and inline elements? (Alternative: Which statement about block and inline elements is true?)

• By default, block elements are the same height and width as the content container between their tags; inline elements span the entire width of its container.
• By default, block elements span the entire width of its container; inline elements are the same height and width as the content contained between their tags.
• A <nav> element is an example of an inline element. <header> is an example of a block element.
• A <span> is an example of a block element. <div> is an example of an inline element.

Question 7: CSS grid introduced a new length unit, for, to create flexible grid tracks. Referring to the code sample below, what will the widths of the three columns be?

. grid {

display: grid;

width: 500px;

grid-template-columns: 50px 1fr 2fr;

}

• The first column will have a width of 50px. The second column will be 50px wide and the third column will be 100px wide.
• The first column will have a width of 50px. The second column will be 150px wide and the third column will be 300px wide.
• The first column will have a width of 50px. The second column will be 300px wide and the third column will be 150px wide.
• The first column will have a width of 50px. The second column will be 500px wide and the third column will be 1000px wide.

Question 8: What is the line-height property primarily used for?

• to control the height of the space between two lines of content
• to control the height of the space between heading elements
• to control the height of the character size
• to control the width of the space between characters

Question 9: Three of these choices are true about class selectors. Which is NOT true?

• Multiple classes can be used within the same element.
• The same class can be used multiple times per page.
• Class selectors with a leading period
• Classes can be used multiple times per page but not within the same element.

Question 10: There are many properties that can be used to align elements and create page layouts such as float, position, flexbox and grid. Of these four properties, which one should be used to align a global navigation bar which stays fixed at the top of the page?

• position
• flexbox
• grid
• float

Question 11: In the shorthand example below, which individual background properties are represented?

background: blue url(image.jpg) no-repeat scroll 0px 0px;

• background-color: blue;

background-image: url(image.jpg);

background-repeat: no-repeat;

background-attachment: scroll;

background-position: 0px 0px;

• background-color: blue;

background-img: url(image.jpg);

background-position: no-repeat;

background-scroll: scroll;

background-size: 0px 0px;

• background-color: blue;

background-src: url(image.jpg);

background-repeat: no-repeat;

background-wrap: scroll;

background-position: 0px 0px;

• background-color: blue;

background-src: url(image.jpg);

background-repeat: no-repeat;

background-scroll: scroll;

background-position: 0px 0px;

Question 12: In the following example, according to cascading and specificity rules, what color will the link be?

.example {

color: yellow;

}

ul li a {

color: blue;

}

ul a {

color: green;

}

a {

color: red;

}

<ul>

<li><a href=” #” class=”example”>link</a></li>

<li>list item</li>

<li>list item</li>

</ul>

• green
• yellow
• blue
• red

Question 13: When elements overlap, they are ordered on the z-axis (i.e., which element covers another). The z-index property can be used to specify the z-order of overlapping elements. Which set of statements about the z-index property are true?

• Larger z-index values appear on top of elements with a lower z-index value. Negative and positive numbers can be used. z-index can only be used on positioned elements.
• Smaller z-index values appear on top of elements with a larger z-index value. Negative and positive numbers can be used. z-index must also be used with positioned elements.
• Larger z-index values appear on top of elements with a lower z-index value. Only positive numbers can be used. z-index must also be used with positioned elements.
• Smaller z-index values appear on top of elements with a larger z-index value. Negative and positive numbers can be used. z-index can be used with or without positioned elements.

Question 14: What is the difference between the following line-height settings?

line-height: 20px

line-height: 2

• The value of 20px will set the line-height to 20px. The value of 2 will set the line-height to twice the size of the corresponding font-size value.
• The value of 20px will set the line-height to 20px. The value of 2 is not valid.
• The value of 20px will set the line-height to 20px. The value of 2 will default to a value of 2px.
• The value of 20px will set the line-height to 20px. The value of 2 will set the line-height to 20% of the corresponding font-size value.

Question 15: In the following example, what color will paragraph one and paragraph two be? (Alternative: In this example, what color will paragraph one and two be?)

<section>

<p>paragraph one</p>

</section>

<p>paragraph two</p>

section p {

color: red;

}

section + p {

color: blue;

}

• Paragraph one will be blue, paragraph two will be red.
• Both paragraphs will be blue.
• Paragraphs one will be red, paragraph two will be blue.
• Both paragraphs will be red.

Question 16: What are three valid ways of adding CSS to an HTML page?

• 1. External; CSS is written in a separate file.

2. Inline; CSS is added to the <head> of the HTML page.

3. Internal; CSS is included within the HTML tags.

• 1. External; CSS is written in a separate file and is linked within the <header> element of the HTML file.

2. Inline; CSS is added to the HTML tag.

3. Internal; CSS is included within the <header> element of the HTML file.

• 1. External; CSS is written in a separate file and is linked within the <head> element of the HTML file.

2. Internal; CSS is included within the <header> element of the HTML file.

3. Inline; CSS is added to the HTML tag.

• 1. External; CSS is written in a separate file and is linked within the <head> element of the HTML file.

2. Inline; CSS is added to the HTML tag.

3. Internal; CSS is included within the <head> element of the HTML file.

Question 17: Which of the following is true of the SVG image format? (Alternative: Which statement about the SVG image format is true?)

• CSS can be applied to SVGs but JavaScript cannot be.
• SVGs work best for creating 3D graphics.
• SVGs can be created as a vector graphic or coded using SVG specific elements such as <svg>, <line>, and <ellipse>.
• SVGs are a HAML-based markup language for creating vector graphics.

Question 18: In the example below, when will the color pink be applied to the anchor element?

a: active {

color: pink;

}

• The color of the link will display as pink after it’s been clicked or if the mouse is hovering over the link.
• The color of the link will display as pink on mouse hover.
• The color of the link will display as pink while the link is being clicked but before the mouse click is released.
• The color of the link will display as pink before it has been clicked.

Question 19: To change the color of an SVG using CSS, which property is used?

• Use background-fill to set the color inside the object and stroke or border to set the color of the border.
• The color cannot be changed with CSS.
• Use fill or background to set the color inside the object and stroke to set the color of the border.
• Use fill to set the color inside the object and stroke to set the color of the border.

Question 20: When using position: fixed, what will the element always be positioned relative to?

• the closest element with position: relative
• the viewport
• the parent element
• the wrapper element

Question 21: By default, a background image will repeat \_\_\_

• only if the background-repeat property is set to repeat
• indefinitely, vertically, and horizontally
• indefinitely on the horizontal axis only
• once, on the x and y axis

Question 22: When using media queries, media types are used to target a device category. Which choice lists current valid media types?

• print, screen, aural
• print, screen, television
• print, screen, speech
• print, speech, device

Question 23: How would you make the first letter of every paragraph on the page red?

• p: first-letter {color: red;}
• p: first-letter {color: red;}
• first-letter: p {color: red;}
• first-letter: p {color: red;}

Question 24: In this example, what is the selector, property, and value?

p {

color: #000000;

}

• “p” is the selector

“#000000” is the property

“color” is the value

• “p” is the selector

“color” is the property

“#000000” is the value

• “color” is the selector

“#000000” is the property

“#p” is the value

• “color” is the selector

“p” is the property

“#000000” is the value

Question 25: What is the rem unit based on?

• The rem unit is relative to the font-size of the p element.
• You have to set the value for the rem unit by writing a declaration such as rem {font-size: 1 Spx;}
• The rem unit is relative to the font-size of the containing (parent) element.
• The rem unit is relative to the font-size of the root element of the page.

Question 26: Which of these would give a block element rounded corners?

• corner-curve: 10px
• border-corner: 10px
• border-radius: 10px
• corner-radius: 10px

Question 27: In the following media query example, what conditions are being targeted?

@media (min-width: 1024px), screen and (orientation: landscape) {…}

• The rule will apply to a device that has either a width of 1024px or wider, or is a screen device in landscape mode.
• The rule will apply to a device that has a width of 1024px or narrower and is a screen device in landscape mode.
• The rule will apply to a device that has a width of 1024px or wider and is a screen device in landscape mode.
• The rule will apply to a device that has a width of 1024px or narrower, or is a screen device in landscape mode.

Question 28: CSS transform properties are used to change the shape and position of the selected objects. The transform-origin property specifies the location of the element’s transformation origin. By default, what is the location of the origin?

• the top left corner of the element
• the center of the element
• the top right corner of the element
• the bottom left of the element

Question 29: Which of the following is not a valid color value?

• color: #000
• color: rgb (0,0,0)
• color: #000000
• color: 000000

Question 30: What is the vertical gap between the two elements below?

<div style=” margin-bottom: 2rem;”>Div 1</div>

<div style=” margin-top: 2rem;”>Div 2</div>

• 2rem
• 32px
• 64px
• 4rem

Question 31: When using the Flexbox method, what property and value is used to display flex items in a column?

• flex-flow: column; or flex-direction: column
• flex-flow: column;
• flex-column: auto;
• flex-direction: column;

Question 32: Which type of declaration will take precedence?

• any declarations in user-agent stylesheets
• important declarations in user stylesheets
• normal declarations in author stylesheets
• important declarations in author stylesheets

Question 33: The flex-direction property is used to specify the direction that flex items are displayed. What are the values used to specify the direction of the items in the following examples?

• Example 1: flex-direction: row; Example 2: flex-direction: row-reverse; Example 3: flex-direction: column; Example 4: flex-direction: column-reverse;
• Example 1: flex-direction: row-reverse; Example 2: flex-direction: row; Example 3: flex-direction: column-reverse; Example 4: flex-direction: column;
• Example 1: flex-direction: row; Example 2: flex-direction: row-reverse; Example 3: flex-direction: column; Example 4: flex-direction: reverse-column;
• Example 1: flex-direction: column; Example 2: flex-direction: column-reverse; Example 3: flex-direction: row; Example 4: flex-direction: row-reverse;

Question 34: There are two sibling combinators that can be used to select elements contained within the same parent element; the general sibling combinator (~) and the adjacent sibling combinator (+). Referring to example below, which elements will the styles be applied to?

elements will the styles be applied to?

h2 ~ p {

color: blue;

}

h2 + p {

background: beige;

}

<section>

<p>paragraph 1</p>

<h2>Heading</h2>

<p>paragraph 2</p>

<p>paragraph 3</p>

</section>

• Paragraphs 2 and 3 will be blue. The h2 and paragraph 2 will have a beige background.
• Paragraphs 2, and 3 will be blue, and paragraph 2 will have a beige background.
• Paragraphs 2 and 3 will be blue. Paragraph 2 will have a beige background.
• Paragraph 2 will be blue. Paragraphs 2 and 3 will have a beige background

Question 35: When using flexbox, the “justify-content” property can be used to distribute the space between the flex items along the main axis. Which value should be used to evenly distribute the flex items within the container shown below?

• justify-content: space-around;
• justify-content: center;
• justify-content: auto;
• justify-content: space-between;

Question 36: There are many advantages to using icon fonts. What is one of those advantages?

• Icon fonts increase accessibility.
• Icon fonts can be used to replace custom fonts.
• Icon fonts can be styled with typography related properties such as font-size and color.
• Icon fonts are also web safe fonts.

Question 37: What is the difference between display: none and visibility: hidden?

• Both will hide the element on the page, but display: none has greater browser support. visibility: hidden is a new property and does not have the best browser support
• display: none hides the elements but maintains the space it previously occupied. visibility: hidden will hide the element from view and remove it from the normal flow of the document
• display: none hides the element from view and removes it from the normal flow of the document. visibility: hidden will hide the element but maintains the space it previously occupied.
• There is no difference; both will hide the element on the page

Question 38: What selector and property would you use to scale an element to be 50% smaller on hover?

• element: hover {scale: 0.5;}
• element: hover {transform: scale (0.5);}
• element: hover {scale: 50%;}
• element: hover {transform: scale (50%);}

Question 39: Which statement regarding icon fonts is true?

• Icon fonts can be inserted only using JavaScript.
• Icon fonts are inserted as inline images.
• Icon fonts require browser extensions.
• Icon fonts can be styled with typography-related properties such as font-size and color.

Question 40: The values for the font-weight property can be keywords or numbers. For each numbered value below, what is the associated keyword?

font-weight: 400; font-weight: 700;

• bold; normal
• normal; bold
• light; normal
• normal; bolder

Question 41: If the width of the container is 500 pixels, what would the width of the three columns be in this layout?

• . grid {display: grid; grid-template-columns: 50px 1fr 2fr;}
• 50px, 150px, 300px
• 50px, 200px, 300px
• 50px, 100px, 200px
• 50px, 50px, 100px

Question 42: Using the: nth-child pseudo class, what would be the most efficient way to style every third item in a list, no matter how many items are present, starting with item 2?

• li: nth-child (3 + 2n) {

margin: 0 5 px;

}

• li: nth-child (3n + 2) {

margin: 0 5 px;

}

• li: nth-child (2),

li: nth-child (5),

li: nth-child (8) {

margin: 0 5 px;

}

• li: nth-child (2n + 3) {

margin: 0 5 px;

}

Question 43: Which selector would select only internal links within the current page?

• a [href=” #”] {…}
• a [href~=” #”]
• a [href^=” #”]
• a [href=” #”]

Question 44: What is not true about class selectors?

• Only one class value can be assigned to an element.
• An element can have multiple class value.
• Class selectors are marked with a leading period.
• More than one element can have the same class value.

Question 45: What is the difference between the margin and padding properties?

• Margin adds space around and inside of an element; padding adds space only inside of an element.
• Margin adds space around an element; padding adds apace inside of an element.
• Margin adds a line around an element, padding adds space inside of an element.
• Margin adds space inside of an element, padding adds space around an element.

Question 46: What is not a valid way of declaring a padding value of 10 pixels on the top and bottom, and 0 pixels on the left and right?

• padding: 10px 10px 0px 0px;
• padding: 10px 0px;
• padding: 10px 0;
• padding: 10px 0px 10px 0px;

Question 47: Is there an error in this code? If so, find the best description of the problem

@font-face {

font-family: ‘Avenir’, sans-serif;

src: url (‘avenir. woff2’) format(‘woff2’), url (‘avenir. woff’) format(‘woff’);

}

• The font file formats are not supported in modern browsers.
• The src attribute requires a comma between the URL and format values.
• There are no errors in the example.
• The sans-serif inclusion is problematic.

Question 48: Which style places an element at a fixed location within its container?

• position: absolute;
• display: flex;
• display: block;
• float: left;

Question 49: The calc () CSS function is often used for calculating relative values. In the example below, what is the specified margin-left value?

.example {

margin-left: calc (5% + 5px);

}

• The left margin value is equal to 5% of its parent’s element’s width plus 5px
• The left margin value is equal to 5% of the viewport width plus 5px
• The left margin value is equal to 5% of the closest positioned element’s width plus 5px
• The left margin value is equal to 5% of the selected element’s width (.example) plus 5px

Question 50: What is the CSS selector for a tag containing the title attribute?

• a[title]
• a > title
• a=title
• title

Question 51: Which code would you use to absolutely position an element of the logo class?

• . logo {position: absolute; left: 100px; top: 150px;}
• . logo {position: absolute; margin-left: 100px; margin-top: 150px;}
• . logo {position: absolute; padding-left: 100px; padding-top: 150px;}
• . logo {position: absolute; left-padding: 100px; top-padding: 150px;}

Question 52: In this example, what color will Paragraph 1 be?

p: first-of-type {

color: red;

}

p {

color: blue;

}

.container {

color: yellow;

}

p: first-child {

color: green;

}

<div class=”container”>

<h1>Heading</h1>

<p>Paragraph1</p>

<p>Paragraph2</p>

</div>

• blue
• green
• red
• yellow

Question 53: What is the: placeholder pseudo-element used for?

• It is used to format the appearance of placeholder text within a form control.
• It specifies the default input text for a form control.
• It writes text content into a hyperlink tooltip.
• It writes text content into any page element.

Question 54: Which statement is true of the single colon (:) or double colon (: 🙂 notations for pseudo-elements-for example, before and: before?

• All browsers support single and double colons for new and older pseudo-elements. So you can use either but it is convention to use single colons for consistency.
• In CSS3, the double colon notation (: 🙂 was introduced to create a consistency between pseudo-elements from pseudo-classes. For newer browsers, use the double colon notation. For IE8 and below, using single colon notation (:).
• Only the new CSS3 pseudo-elements require the double colon notation while the CSS2 pseudo-elements do not.
• In CSS3, the double colon notation (: 🙂 was introduced to differentiate pseudo-elements from pseudo-classes. However, modern browsers support both formats. Older browsers such as IE8 and below do not.

Question 55: Which choice is not valid value for the font-style property?

• normal
• italic
• none
• oblique

Question 56: When would you use the @font-face method?

• to set the font size of the text
• to load custom fonts into stylesheet
• to change the name of the font declared in the font-family
• to set the color of the text

Question 57: When elements within a container overlap, the z-index property can be used to indicate how those items are stacked on top of each other. Which set of statements is true?

• 1. Larger z-index values appear on top elements with a lower z-index value.

2. Negative and positive number can be used.

3. z-index can be used only on positioned elements.

• 1. Smaller z-index values appear on top of elements with a larger z-index value.

2. Negative and positive numbers can be used.

3. z-index can be used with or without positioned elements.

• 1. Smaller z-index values appear on top of elements with a larger z-index value.

2. Negative and positive number can be used.

3. z-index must also be used with positioned elements.

• 1. Larger z-index values appear on top of elements with a lower z-index value.

2. Only positive number can be used.

3. z-index must also be used with positioned elements.

Question 58: You have a large image that needs to fit into a 400 x 200-pixel area. What should you resize the image to if your users are using Retina displays?

• 2000 x 1400 pixels
• 200 x 100 pixels
• 800 x 400 pixels
• 400 x 200 pixels

Question 59: In Chrome’s Developer Tools view, where are the default styles listed?

• under the User Agent Stylesheet section on the right
• in the third panel under the Layout tab
• under the HTML view on the left
• in the middle panel

Question 60: While HTML controls document structure, CSS controls _.

• semantic meaning
• content meaning
• document structure
• content appearance

Introduction to LinkedIn CSS

LinkedIn has strict policies and guidelines about modifying the appearance of profiles to maintain a consistent user experience and branding across the platform.

Here are some key points regarding CSS and LinkedIn:

1. No Custom CSS: LinkedIn does not provide a way for users to add custom CSS to their profiles. This includes changing fonts, colors, layouts, etc.
2. Standardization: LinkedIn maintains a uniform design across all profiles to ensure a consistent user experience for its members.
3. Profile Elements: While you cannot change the overall appearance of your profile using CSS, you can control the content and order of the profile sections such as Experience, Education, Skills, etc.
4. Professional Appearance: LinkedIn encourages users to keep their profiles professional and straightforward, focusing on content rather than design customization.
5. LinkedIn Learning: LinkedIn Learning offers courses on how to optimize your profile for visibility and professionalism without the need for CSS customization.

If you’re looking to enhance your LinkedIn profile:

• Profile Completeness: Ensure all sections are filled out completely and accurately.
• Keywords: Use relevant keywords in your profile to optimize it for search.
• Networking: Actively engage with connections and participate in groups and discussions.
• Recommendations and Endorsements: Seek endorsements and recommendations from colleagues and supervisors to strengthen your profile.

While CSS customization isn’t possible on LinkedIn, focusing on content and engagement can greatly enhance your profile’s effectiveness.

LinkedIn Android Exam Quiz Answers

Question 1: Which approach is not recommended for providing a useful offline state in your app?

• caching data
• storing data locally
• queuing outbound requests to action when connectivity has been lost
• always notifying users that connectivity has been lost

Question 2: You need to provide your users with certain features of your app on-demand or as instant experiences through Google Play. Which type of module should you create?

• library module
• dynamic feature module
• Android app module
• Google Cloud module

Question 3: What is the current recommended way to handle long-running background tasks?

• WorkManager
• AsyncTask
• IntentService
• Thread

Question 4: Which layout hierarchy is likely to be drawn the most quickly?

• A
• B
• C
• D

Question 5: To shrink your code in release builds, what tool does Android Studio use?

• R8
• ProGuard
• Shrinker
• D8 Explanation: When you build your project using Android Gradle plugin 3.4.0 or higher, the plugin no longer uses ProGuard to perform compile-time code optimization. Instead, the plugin works with the R8 compiler to handle

Question 6: Which attribute of the element is used to specify the minimum API Level required for the application to run?

• android:targetSdkVersion
• android:minSdkVersion
• android:maxSdkVersion
• None of the above

Question 7: What is the use of AndroidManifest.xml file?

• It describes the component of the application
• It declares the minimum level of the android API that the application requires
• It facilitates to provide a uinque name for the application by specifying package name
• All of the above

Question 8: You have created an AboutActivity class that displays details about your app. Which code snippet allows you to launch your activity?

• Intent (this, AboutActivity:class). also {intent -> startService(intent)}
• Intent (this, AboutActivity: class.java). also {intent -> startActivity(intent)}
• Intent (this, AboutActivity:class). also {intent -> activity(intent)}
• Intent (this, AboutActivity:class). also {intent -> startActivity(intent)} Explanation: Intent (Context packageContext, Class<?> cls) Notice: Class not KClass

Question 9: What should you use to display a large, scrolling list of elements?

• ListView
• Recycler View
• LinearLayout
• Scrollview

Question 10: Which component is not an entry point through which the system or a user can enter your app?

• activity
• content provider
• fragment
• service

Question 11: To add features, components, and permissions to your Android app, which file needs to be edited?

• AndroidManifest.xml
• Components.xml
• AppManifest.xml
• ComponentManifest.xml

Question 12: Which XML attribute should be used to make an Image View accessible?

• android:talkBack
• android:labelFor
• android:hint
• android:contentDescription

Question 13: You launch your app, and when you navigate to a new screen it crashes, which action will NOT help you diagnose the issue?

• Set breakpoints and then step through the code line by line
• Use the profiler tools in Android Studio to detect anomalies CPU, and network usage.
• Add a Thread.sleep() call before you start the new activity.
• inspect the logs in Logcat.

Question 14: Why might push notifications stop working?

• all of these answers
• The device token is not being sent to push provider correctly.
• Google Play Services is not installed on the deivce/emulator.
• Battery optimization is turned on on the device.

Question 15: What is the correct set of component classes needed to implement a RecyclerView of items that displays a list of widgets vertically?

• RecycleView

RecyclerView.Adapter<T extends BaseAdapter>

RecyclerView.ViewHolder<T extends BaseViewHolder>

LinearLayoutManager

• RecycleView

RecyclerView.Adapter

RecyclerView.ViewHolder<T extends BaseViewHolder>

LinearLayoutManager

• RecycleView

RecyclerView.Adapter

RecyclerView.ViewHolder

LinearLayoutManager

• RecycleView

RecyclerView.Adapter<VH extends ViewHolder>

RecyclerView.ViewHolder

LinearLayoutManager

Question 16: The Android system kills process when it needs to free up memory. The likelihood of the system killing a given process depends on the state of the process and the activity at the time. With combination of process and activity state is most likely to be killed?

• Process:In the background;Activity:Is stopped
• Process:In the background;Activity:Is paused
• Process:In the foreground;Activity:Is started
• Process:In the foreground;Activity:Is paused

Question 17: You have created a NextActivity class that relies on a string containing some data that pass inside the intent Which code snippet allows you to launch your activity?

• Intent (this, NextActivity: class.java). also {intent ->

startActivity(intent)

}

• Intent (this, NextActivity: class.java). apply {

put (EXTRA_NEXT, “some data”)

}. also {intent ->

activityStart(intent)

}

• Intent (this, NextActivity:class.java).apply {

putExtra (EXTRA_NEXT, “some data”)

}. also {intent ->

startActivity(intent)

}

• Intent (this, NextActivity: class.java). apply {

put (EXTRA_NEXT, “some data”)

}. also {intent ->

activityStart(intent)

}

Question 18: You want to include about and setting modules in your project. Which files accurately reflects their inclusion?

• in build.gradle:include ‘:app’,’:about’ ‘:settings’
• in settings.gradle:include ‘:app’,’:about’ ‘:settings’
• in settings.gradle:include ‘:about’,’:settings’
• in gradle.properties:include ‘:app’,’:about’ ‘:settings’

Question 19: What is the benifit of using @VisibleForTesting annotation?

• to denote that a class, methos, or field has its visibility relaxed to make code testable
• to denote that a class, method, or field is visible only in the test code
• to denote that a class, method, or field has its visibility increased to make code less testable
• to throw a run-time error if a class, methos, or field with this annotation is accessed improperly

Question 20: How would you specify in your build.gradle file that your app required at least API level 21 to run, but that it can be tested on API level 28?

• defaultConfig {

…

minApiVersion 21

targetApiVersion 28

}

• defaultConfig {

…

targetSdkVersion 21

testSdkVersion 28

}

• defaultConfig {

…

minSdkVersion 21

testApiVersion 28

}

• defaultConfig {

…

minSdkVersion 21

targetSdkVersion 28

}

Question 21: When will an activity’s onActivityResult()be called?

• when calling finish () in the parent activity
• when placing an app into the background by sitching to another app
• When onStop () is called in the target activity
• when calling finish () in the target activity

Question 22: You need to remove an Event based on it;s id from your API, Which code snippet defines that request in Retrofit?

• @DELETE(“events) fun deleteEvent(@Path(“id”) id: Long): Call
• @DELETE(“events/{id}”) fun deleteEvent(@Path(“id”) id: Long): Call
• @REMOVE(“events/{id}”) fun deleteEvent(@Path(“id”) id: Long): Call
• @DELETE(“events/{id}”) fun deleteEvent(@Path(“id”) id: Long): Call

Question 23: When would you use a product flavour in your build setup?

• when you need to have the app’s strings present in multiple lanuages
• when you have to provide different versions of your app based on the physical device size
• when you want to provide different versions of your app based on the device screen density
• when you want to provide different version of your app with custom configuration and resources

Question 24: Given the fragment below, how would you get access to a TextView with an ID of text_home contained in the layout file of a Fragment class?

• root.getById(R.id.text_home)
• findViewByID(R.id.text_home)
• root.findViewById(R.id.text_home)
• root.find(R.id.text_home)

Question 25: Why do you use the AndroidJUnitRunner when running UI tests?

• The test runner facilitates loading your test package and the app under test onto a device or emulator, runs the test, and reports the results.
• The test runner creating screenshots of each screen that displayed while tests are executed.
• The test runner facilitates parallelization of test classes by providing for each test class.
• The test runner facilitates interacting with visible elements on a device, regardless of the activity or fragment that has focus.

Question 26: What allows you to properly restore a user’s state when an activity is restarted?

• the onSaveInstance () method
• all of these answers
• persistent storage
• ViewModel objects

Question 27: Given the definition below. how would you get access a TextView with an ID of text_home contained in thr layout file of a Fragment class?

• root.find(R.id.text_home)
• findViewById(R.id.text_home)
• root.getById(R.id.text_home)
• root.findViewById(R.id.text_home)

Question 28: IF the main thread is blocked for too long, the system displays the _ dialog?

• Thread Not Responding
• Application Paused
• Application Not Responding
• Application Blocked

Question 29: How would you retrieve the value of a user’s email from SharedPreferences while ensuring that the returned value is not null?

• getPreferances(this). getString (Email,””)
• getDefaultSharedPrefarances(this). getString (EMAIL, null)
• getDefaultSharedPreferances(this). getString (EMAIL,””)
• getPreferances(this). getString (EMAIL, null)

Question 30: Why is it problematic to define sizes using pixels on Android?

• Although screen pixel density varies, this does not impact the use of pixels to define sizes.
• Large devices always have more pixels, so your UI elements will be e=affected if you define them with pixels.
• The same number of pixels may correspond to different physical sizes, affecting the appearance of your UI elements.
• Different devices have different understanding of what a pixel is, affecting the appearance of your UI elements

Question 31: You need to get a list of devices that are attached to your computer with USB debugging enable. Which command would execute using the Android Debug Bridge?

• list devices
• adb devices
• list avd
• dir devices

Question 32: To persist a small collection of key-value data, what should you use?

• external file storage
• SharedPereferences
• SQLite
• internal file storage

Question 33: You need to retrieve a list of photos from an API. Which code snippet defines an HTML GET request in Retrofit?

• @GET(“photo/{id}”} fun listPhotos(@Path(“id”) id:Long?) : Call
• @LIST(“photo”) fun listPhotos (): Call<List>
• @GET(“photo”) fun listPhotos (): Call
• @GET(“photo”) fun listPhotos (): Call<List>

Question 34: Given the test class below, which code snippet would be a correct assertion?

• assertThat(resultAdd).is (2.0)
• assertNotNull(resultAdd)
• assertThat(resultAdd). isWqualTo (2.0)
• assertThat(resultAdd)

Question 35: What tag should you use to add a reusable view component to a layout file?

• <merge/>
• <include/>
• <layout/>
• <add/>

Question 36: You want to provide a different drawable for devices that are in landscape mode and whose language is set to French. which directory is named correctly?

• fr-land-drawable
• drawable-fr-land
• drawable-french-land
• french-land-drawable

Question 37: Why might you need to include the following permission to your app?

• to monitor the location of the devices so that you don’t attempt to make network calls when the user is stationary
• to request the ability to make network calls from your app
• to monitor the network state of the device so that you can display an in-app banner to the user
• to monitor the network state of the devices so that you don’t attempt to make network calls when the network is unavailable

Question 38: Which image best corresponds to the following LinearLayout?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Question 39: You want to open the default Dialer app on a device. What is wrong with this code?

• startActivityWithResult () should be used instead of startActivity () when using Intent.ACTION_DIAL.
• For Intent.ACTION_DIAL, the Intent option Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK must be added when using this dialerIntent.
• The dialerIntent will cause an ActivityNotFoundException to be thrown on devices that do not support Intent.ACTION_DIAL.
• The permission android.permission.CALL_PHONE must be requested first before Intent.ACTION_DIAL can be used.

Question 40: When should you store files in the /assets directory?

• when you need access to the original file names and file hierarchy
• when you need access to the file with its resource ID, like R.assets.filename
• when you have XML files that define tween animations
• when you need to access the file in its raw form using Resources.openRawResource()

Question 41: You want to allow users to take pictures in your app. Which is not an advantage of creating an appropriate intent, instead of requesting the camera permission directly?

• Users can select their favorite photo apps to take pictures.
• You do not have to make a permission request in your app to take a picture.
• You have full control over the user experience. The app that handles the camera intent will respect your design choices.
• You do not have to design the UI. The app that handles the camera intent will provide the UI.

Question 42: When would you use the ActivityCompat.shouldShowRequestPermissionRationale() function?

• when a user first opens your app and you want to provide an explanation for the use of a given permission
• when a user has previously denied the request for a given permission and selects “Tell me more”
• when a user has previously denied the request for a given permission and you want to provide an explanation for its use
• when a user has previously denied the request for a given permission and selected “Don’t ask again,” but you need the permission for your app to function

Question 43: You would like to enable analytics tracking only in release builds. How can you create a new field in the generated BuildConfig class to store that value?

• buildTypes {

debug {

buildConfig ‘boolean’, ‘ENABLE_ANALYTICS’, ‘false’

}

release {

buildConfig ‘boolean’, ‘ENABLE_ANALYTICS’, ‘true’

}

}

• buildTypes {

debug {

buildConfig ‘String’, ‘ENABLE_ANALYTICS’, ‘false’

}

release {

buildConfig ‘String’, ‘ENABLE_ANALYTICS’, ‘true’

}

}

• buildTypes {

debug {

buildConfigField ‘boolean’, ‘ENABLE_ANALYTICS’, ‘false’

}

release {

buildConfigField ‘boolean’, ‘ENABLE_ANALYTICS’, ‘true’

}

}

• buildTypes {

debug {

buildConfigField ‘boolean’, ‘ENABLE_ANALYTICS’, ‘true’

}

release {

buildConfigField ‘boolean’, ‘ENABLE_ANALYTICS’, ‘false’

}

}

Question 44: To optimize your APK size, what image codec should you use?

• JPG
• PNG
• MPEG
• WebP

Question 45: You have built code to make a network call and tested that it works in your development environment. However, when you publish it to the Play console, the networking call fails to work. What will not help you troubleshoot this issue?

• checking whether ProGuard -keepclassmembers have been added to the network data transfer objects (DTOs) in question
• using the profiler tools in Android Studio to detect anomalies in CPU, memory, and network usage
• checking for exceptions in the server logs or server console
• checking that the network data transfer object has @SerizlizedName applied to its member properties

Question 46: Which code snippet would achieve the layout displayed below?

• xml

<androidx.constraintlayout.widget.ConstraintLayout

…>

<TextView

android:id=”@+id/text_dashboard”

android:layout_width=”match_parent”

android:layout_height=”wrap_content”

android:layout_marginTop=”16dp”

android:padding=”8dp”

android:textAlignment=”center”

android:text=”Dashboard”

app:layout_constraintEnd_toEndOf=”parent”

app:layout_constraintStart_toStartOf=”parent”

app:layout_constraintTop_toTopOf=”parent” />

</androidx.constraintlayout.widget.ConstraintLayout>

• xml

<androidx.constraintlayout.widget.ConstraintLayout

…>

<TextView

android:id=”@+id/text_dashboard”

android:layout_width=”match_parent”

android:layout_height=”wrap_content”

android:layout_marginStart=”8dp”

android:layout_marginEnd=”8dp”

android:textAlignment=”center”

android:text=”Dashboard”

app:layout_constraintEnd_toEndOf=”parent”

app:layout_constraintStart_toStartOf=”parent”

app:layout_constraintTop_toTopOf=”parent” />

</androidx.constraintlayout.widget.ConstraintLayout>

• xml

<androidx.constraintlayout.widget.ConstraintLayout

…>

<TextView

android:id=”@+id/text_dashboard”

android:layout_width=”match_parent”

android:layout_height=”wrap_content”

android:layout_marginStart=”8dp”

android:layout_marginTop=”16dp”

android:layout_marginEnd=”8dp”

android:padding=”8dp”

android:textAlignment=”center”

android:text=”Dashboard”

app:layout_constraintEnd_toEndOf=”parent”

app:layout_constraintStart_toStartOf=”parent”

app:layout_constraintTop_toTopOf=”parent” />

</androidx.constraintlayout.widget.ConstraintLayout>

• xml

<androidx.constraintlayout.widget.ConstraintLayout

…>

<TextView

android:id=”@+id/text_dashboard”

android:layout_width=”match_parent”

android:layout_height=”wrap_content”

android:layout_marginStart=”8dp”

android:layout_marginTop=”16dp”

android:layout_marginEnd=”8dp”

android:padding=”8dp”

android:text=”Dashboard”

app:layout_constraintEnd_toEndOf=”parent”

app:layout_constraintStart_toStartOf=”parent”

/>

Question 47: Which source set is _not_ available to you by default when Android Studio creates a new project?

• test
• androidTest
• app
• main

Question 48: Which definition will prevent other apps from accessing your Activity class via an intent?

• xml

<activity android:name=”.ExampleActivity” />

• xml

<activity android:name=”.ExampleActivity”>

<intent-filter>

<action android:name=”android.intent.action.SEND” />

</intent-filter>

</activity>

• xml

<activity android:name=”.ExampleActivity”>

<intent-filter>

<action android:name=”android.intent.action.MAIN” />

<category android:name=”android.intent.category.LAUNCHER” />

</intent-filter>

</activity>

• xml

<activity android:name=”.ExampleActivity”>

<intent-filter>

<action android:name=”android.intent.action.VIEW” />

</intent-filter>

</activity>

Question 49: To preserve on-device memory, how might you determine that the user’s device has limited storage capabilities?

• Use the ActivityManager.isLowRamDevice() method to find out whether a device defines itself as “low RAM.”
• Use the Activity.islowRam() method to find out whether a device defines itself as “low RAM.”
• Use the ConnectivityManager.hasLowMemory() method to find out whether a device defines itself as “low RAM.”
• Make an image download request and check the remaining device storage usage.

Question 50: What is _not_ a good way to reuse Android code?

• Use a common Gradle module shared by different Android projects.
• Prefer to build custom views or fragments over activities.
• Prefer to build activities instead of fragments.
• Break down UI layouts into common elements and use <include/> to include them in other layout XML files.

Question 51: Which layout is best for large, complex hierarchies?

• LinearLayout
• ConstraintLayout
• FrameLayout
• RelativeLayout

Question 52: You need to upgrade to the latest version of the Android Gradle plugin. Which file should you modify?

• root_project_dir/app/build.gradle.
• root_project_dir/settings.gradle.
• root_project_dir/build.gradle.
• root_project_dir/app/gradle.properties.

Question 53: Why do developers often put app initialization code in the Application class?

• The Application class is instantiated before any other class when the process for the application is created.
• The Application class is instantiated after any permissions requests when the process for the application is created.
• The Application class is created each time a new Activity is launched, making it ideal for initialization code.
• The Application class is created each time a background service is called, making it ideal for initialization code.

Question 54: What folder should you use for your app’s launcher icons?

• /Drawable
• /Icon
• /Mipmap
• /Launcher

Question 55: Which drawable definition allows you to achieve the shape below?

• xml

<shape xmlns:android=”http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android”

android:shape=”oval”>

<stroke

android:width=”4dp”

android:color=”@android:color/white” />

<solid android:color=”@android:color/black” />

</shape>

• xml

<oval xmlns:android=”http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android”>

<stroke android:width=”4dp” android:color=”@android:color/black”/>

<solid android:color=”@android:color/white”/>

</oval>

• xml

<shape xmlns:android=”http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android”

android:shape=”oval”>

<stroke

android:width=”4dp”

android:color=”@android:color/black” />

<solid android:color=”@android:color/white” />

</shape>

• xml

<shape xmlns:android=”http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android”

android:shape=”oval”>

<stroke

android:width=”4dp”

android:color=”@android:color/white” />

<solid android:color=”@android:color/white” />

</shape>

Question 56: Given the ConstraintLayout below, which statement is true?

• View B is not horizontally constrained.
• View C has too many constraints.
• View B is not vertically constrained.
• View C is constrained to the parent.

Question 57: Given this code snippey from a build.gradle file, which choice is not a possible build variant?

• productionDebug.
• developmentDebug.
• stagingDebug.
• stagingRelease.

Question 58: When should you use the androidTest directory to store your test classes?

• when the tests consist only of unit tests.
• when the number of tests to run is large (500+).
• when the tests need to run on your local machine.
• when the tests need to run on real or virtual devices.

Question 59: What is the benifit of using @VisibleForTesting annotation?

• to denote that a class, methos, or field has its visibility relaxed to make code testable
• to denote that a class, method, or field is visible only in the test code
• to denote that a class, method, or field has its visibility increased to make code less testable
• to throw a run-time error if a class, methos, or field with this annotation is accessed improperly

Question 60: Given an APK named app-internal-debug.apk produced from the build process, which statement is likely to be true?

• This APK is created on a developer machine from the debug product flavor.
• This APK is created from the internalDebug product flavor.
• This APK created from the debug product flavor and internal build type.
• This APK is created from the debug build type and internal product flavor.

Question 61: When attempting to build your project, what might the following error indicate?

• You have included incorect format information in your build.gradle file.
• You have added more than 20 dependencies to your build.gradle.
• You have exceeded the total number of methods that can be referenced within a single DEX file.
• You have a NullPointerException in your code.

Question 62: Which statement, in build.gradle file, correctly denotes that the corresponding module is an Android library module?

• apply plugin: ‘com.module.library’
• apply plugin: ‘com.android.library’
• apply plugin: ‘com.module.library’
• include plugin: ‘com.module.library’

Question 63: Given the following dimens.xml file, how would you define an ImageView with medium spacing at the bottom?

• <ImageView

android:id=@+id/image_map_pin”

android:layout_width=”wrap_content”

android:layout_heignt=”wrap_content”

android:src=@drawable/map_pin />

• android:id=@+id/image_map_pin”

android:layout_width=”wrap_content”

android:layout_heignt=”wrap_content”

androi:layout_botttom=”@dimen/spacing_medium”

android:src=@drawable/map_pin />

• <ImageView

android:id=@+id/image_map_pin”

android:layout_width=”wrap_content”

android:layout_heignt=”wrap_content”

android:layout_marginBottom=”@resources/spacing_medium”

android:src=@drawable/map_pin />

• <ImageView

android:id=@+id/image_map_pin”

android:layout_width=”wrap_content”

android:layout_heignt=”wrap_content”

android:layout_marginBottom=”@dimen/spacing_medium”

android:src=@drawable/map_pin />

Question 64: What is not a benefit of externalizing app resources such as image and string from a code?

• It allows Android to choose the appropriate resource based on the current configuration during runtime.
• It allows you to have more performant applications because the code and resources are separated.
• It allows you to provide a different Ul experience based on the user’s language settings.
• It allows you to provide a different Ul experience based on the user’s device size.

Question 65: What is the chief purpose of line five in this code snippet?

• to make sure that the activity finishes when the savedInstanceState is not null
• to make sure that the activity creates a new fragment each time it is restored from a previous state
• to prevent the display of two fragments side by side in cases where the activity is restored from a previous state
• to prevent the creation of overlapping fragments in cases where the activity is restored from a previous state

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